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4 years ago

What is the area of the triangle?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Drupady [299]4 years ago

6 0

$A=b*h \\\\ 8\frac{1}{3}ft\to \frac{25}{3}ft \\\\ 14\frac{1}{4}ft\to\frac{57}{4}ft \\\\\\\ A=\frac{25}{3}ft*\frac{57}{4}ft \\\\ A= \frac{25}{1}ft*\frac{19}{4}ft \\\\ A=\frac{475}{4}ft^2 \\\\ \boxed{A=118\frac{3}{4}ft \to \ variant\ D}$

You might be interested in

Do I need to put parentheses in this? Why it why not?

Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

Parentheses can change the result of the answer. If you want to add 4 and 0.95 first, then multiply that number by 3, then you need parentheses.

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are given the question 3 X 4 + 0.95, it has to types of operations. People solve using the order PEDMAS:

Parentheses,

Exponents,

Division and Multiplication,

Addition and Subtraction.

Since there are no parentheses or exponents, the solver will do multiplication first, then addition.

3 X 4 + 0.95 Multiply first

= 12 + 0.95 Now add

= 12.95 Answer without parentheses

If you add parentheses around 4 + 0.95, the answer would change. According to PEDMAS, the parentheses must be solved before anything else.

3 X (4 + 0.95) Add inside parentheses

= 3 X (4.95) Now multiply

= 14.85 Answer with parentheses

If you added parentheses around 3 X 4, the answer would not change, because you still multiply first.

(3 X 4) + 0.95 Solving parentheses first

= 12 + 0.95 Add

= 12.95 Answer same as original

3 0

3 years ago

Sandra saves 10% of her salary for retirement. This year her salary was $1,000 more than in the previous

ElenaW [278]

Answer:

$41000

Step-by-step explanation:

If her salary was $1,000 more than the previous year and she save $4,200, $4,200 was 10% of her salary. So we should create an equation. (x being her salary from the previous year)

0.1(x+1000)=4200 (divide 4200 by .01)

x+100=42000

42000-1000= 41000

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

) All human blood can be typed as one of O, A, B, or AB. The distribution of the type varies a bit with race. For African-Americ

ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

The correct option is 1 - [(0.8)¹⁰+10*0.2*(0.8)⁹]= 0.6242

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

Given the distribution of probabilities for blood types for African-Americans:

O: 0.4

A: 0.2

B: 0.32

AB: 0.08

A random sample of 10 African-American is chosen, what is the probability that 2 or more of them have Type A blood?

Let X represent "Number of African-Americans with Type A blood in a sample of 10.

Then you have two possible outcomes,

"Success" the person selected has Type A blood, with an associated probability p= 0.2

"Failure" the selected person doesn't have Type A blood, with an associated probability q= 0.8

(You can calculate it as "1-p" or adding all associated probabilities of the remaining blood types: 0.4+0.32+0.08)

Considering, that there is a fixed number of trials n=10, with only two possible outcomes: success and failure. Each experimental unit is independent of the rest and the probability of success remains constant p=0.2, you can say that this variable has a Binomial distribution:

X~Bi(n;p)

You can symbolize the asked probability as:

P(X≥2)

This expression includes the probabilities: X=2, X=3, X=4, X=5, X=6, X=7, X=8, X=9, X=10

And it's equal to

1 - P(X<2)

Where only the probabilities of X=0 and X=1 are included.

There are two ways of calculating this probability:

1) Using the formula:

$P(X)= \frac{n!}{(n-X)!X!} *p^{x} * q^{n-x}$

With this formula, you can calculate the point probability for each value of X=x₀ ∀ x₀=1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

So to reach the asked probability you can:

a) Calculate all probabilities included in the expression and add them:

P(X≥2)= P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5) + P(X=6) + P(X=7) + P(X=8) + P(X=9) + X=10

b) Use the complement rule and calculate only two probabilities:

1 - P(X<2)= 1 - [P(X=0)+P(X=1)]

2) Using the tables of the binomial distribution.

These tables have the cumulative probabilities listed for n: P(X≤x₀)

Using the number of trials, the probability of success, and the expected value of X you can directly attain the corresponding cumulative probability without making any calculations.

>Since you are allowed to use the complement rule I'll show you how to calculate the probability using the formula:

P(X≥2) = 1 - P(X<2)= 1 - [P(X=0)+P(X=1)] ⇒

$P(X=0)= \frac{10!}{(10-)0!0!} *0.2^{0} * 0.8^{10-0}= 0.1074$