In the rhombus angle 1=40 what is angles 2 and 3

Please awnser question from image down below

Natalija [7]

Answer:

C 10 in

Step-by-step explanation:

side of P is $\sqrt{36}$ = 6

side of Q is $\sqrt{64}$ = 8

for missing side use Pythagorean theorem

$r^{2}$ = $6^{2} + 8^{2}$

r^{2} = 36 + 64

r^{2} = 100

r = 10 in

8 0

2 years ago

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Christine asks you for some help on her math homework by showing you the problem and answer she got.

mina [271]

Answer:

gusto mo lah asa ka ehh

umalis ka ga

ehh kaa

erita

papasok ba si maam

may p.e ba gaun zumba nanaman

4 0

4 years ago

What is the probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a

inna [77]

Answer:

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards = 0.846

Step-by-step explanation:

Step(i):-

Let 'S' be the sample space associated with the drawing of a card

n (S) = 52C₁ = 52

Let E₁ be the event of the card drawn being a king

$n( E_{1} ) = 4 _{C_{1} } = 4$

Let E₂ be the event of the card drawn being a queen

$n( E_{2} ) = 4 _{C_{1} } = 4$

But E₁ and E₂ are mutually exclusive events

since E₁ U E₂ is the event of drawing a king or a queen

step(ii):-

The probability of drawing of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards

P( E₁ U E₂ ) = P(E₁) +P(E₂)

$= \frac{4}{52} + \frac{4}{52}$

P( E₁ U E₂ ) = $\frac{8}{52}$

step(iii):-

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = 1- P(E_{1} U E_{2} )$

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = 1- \frac{8}{52}$

$P(E_{1}UE_{2}) ^{-} = \frac{52-8}{52} = \frac{44}{52} = 0.846$

Conclusion:-

The probability of drawing the compliment of a king or a queen from a standard deck of playing cards = 0.846

5 0

3 years ago

8-3x=8 solve for X what is X?

NemiM [27]

Answer:

X = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

In the photo!!!

3 0

4 years ago

Can you plz tell me how to work it out plz I need it but today

Tatiana [17]

First we gather all the information we have about the amount of miles that Carolyn runs:
Monday, Wednesday, Friday: 4 1/2 miles
Tuesday, Saturday: 2 3/4 miles
And the question is the amount of miles that she runs in 4 weeks.
So lets begin by calculating the amount of miles she runs in one week, then we just multiply by 4 and we'll have the final answer.
So, we have to add 4 1/2 three times (Monday, Wed, Friday), and 2 3/4 two times (Tuesday, Sat):
1 week Miles = 4 1/2 + 4 1/2 + 4 1/2 + 2 3/4 + 2 3/4
lets add the whole parts and the fraction parts apart:
1 week Miles = (4 + 4 + 4 + 2 + 2) + (1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 3/4 + 3/4)
1 week Miles = (16) + (3/2 + 6/4)
we can reduce the last fraction:
1 week Miles = (16) + (3/2 + 3/2)
1 week Miles = (16) + (6/2)
1 week Miles = (16) + (3)
1 week Miles = 19
therefore Carolyn runs 19 miles each week, so for 4 weeks we have to add 19 four times or multiply it by 4, is the same:
4 weeks Miles = 4*19
4 weeks Miles = 76
hence Carolyn runs 76 miles in 4 weeks.

4 0

3 years ago

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