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astraxan [27]
2 years ago
13

The gross profit method of inventory valuation is invalid when a. A portion of the inventory is destroyed b. There is a substant

ial increase in inventory during the year c. There is no beginning inventory because it is the first year of operation d. Applying a blanket gross profit rate to merchandise that have wide varying rates of gross profit
Business
1 answer:
IgorC [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d. Applying a blanket gross profit rate to merchandise that have wide varying rates of gross profit

Explanation:

To know what problem could arise fro mthis method, we must understand the method:

ending inventory = cost available for sales - sales x (1- gross profit)

being cost available for sales = beginning invnetory + purchases

a) if a portion of inventory is destroyed, then we subtract it from the cost available for sales and we should be okay.

b) the amount of purchase is being considered so it will not produce a distorsion

c) then beginning invnetory equals to zero in the formula of cost availalbe and we are also okay

d) here is the problem, if there is a wide array of gross profit we could do an average but it will lead to distorsion if the sales are not in the expected weight.

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Echo Corporation uses a job-order costing system and applies overhead to jobs using a predetermined overhead rate. During the ye
ozzi

Answer:

Actual overhead= $153,400

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

During the year the company's Finished Goods inventory account was debited for $360,000 and credited for $338,800. The ending balance in the Finished Goods inventory account was $36,600.

At the end of the year:

Manufacturing overhead was overapplied by $15,900.

If the applied manufacturing overhead was $169,300.

Because the manufacturing overhead was overapplied, we need to subtract from the applied overhead to determine the actual overhead.

Actual overhead= applied overhead - overapplied overhead

Actual overhead= 169300 - 15900= $153,400

5 0
3 years ago
Greiner, Inc., a calendar year S Corporation, holds no AEP. During the year, Chad, an individual Greiner shareholder, receives a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000

The long term capital gain= $5000

The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.

Explanation:

Step 1 of 3

Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:

The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.

Step 2 of 3

However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.

Step 3 of 3

In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-

Thus, capital gain of  is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.

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3 years ago
John was a high school teacher earning $ 80000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering. In order t
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3 years ago
Pls help me!! i need help with an essay for business
vodomira [7]
Do u also want some sources?
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3 years ago
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