Answer:
if foreign investment fell by 100% it would be totally eliminated, so it not possible for it to fall by more than 100%
Explanation:
Since in the question it is given that reduction of the western investment for the third world countries consist that foreign investment falls by 350% for the year 1990s
So if we go through the options, the wrong statement is the last one as it shows that the foreign investment fall by 100% i.e to be fully eliminated
Hence the other options are wrong
Answer:
A. 56.32 days
B. 40.38 days
Explanation:
The Operating cycle is the Inventory period + AR period
Inventory period= 365/(Cost of goods sold/Average inventory)
Average inventory= (Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory)/2
Accounts Receivable period= 365/(Credit Sales/Average Accounts Receivable )
Average Accounts Receivable= (Beginning Accounts Receivable + Ending Inventory Accounts Receivable)/2
Calculated Inventory period= 42.58 days
Calculated Accounts Receivable period= 13.74 days
The Cash cycle is also called the Net Operating cycle which is the Inventory period + Accounts Receivable period- Accounts Payable period
Accounts Payable period= 365/(Cost of goods sold/Average Accounts Payable)
Average Accounts Payable = (Beginning Accounts Payables + Ending Inventory Accounts Payable)/2
Calculated Accounts Payable period= 15.94 days
Answer and Explanation:
1. At 0fficial exchange rate:
100 * 0.5 = $50
what I want to buy would be purchased at $50
at market exchange rate:
0.25 x 100 = $25
products bought from this place are not a good deal as I am paying more than the market exchange rate.
2. at equilibrium exchange rate:
100 x 0.25% = $25
the price is $25
3. from answers 1 and 2, I will not want demand Stan's rupees. the products are costly to get.
4. Stan's currency is obviously overvalued. the people from this country now has increased purchasing power so they can purchase goods in dollars, therefore they would be supplying their currency.
5. They will have to buy up the surplus of rupees so that they can easily keep up with maintaining the rupee at half a dollar.
Death or happiness or even sadness or maybe life or a happy feeling
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Dividend, D0 =$1.20
Price, P0 = $50.00
Growth rate, g = 6% (constant)
Based on the DCF approach, then
Cost of Equity:
= [D0 × (1 + g) ÷ P0] + g
= [(1.20 × (1 + 0.06)) ÷ 50] + 0.06
= (1.272 ÷ 50) + 0.06
= 0.02544 + 0.06
= 0.08544 or 8.54%
Hence, the cost of equity from retained earnings is 8.54%.