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Delvig [45]
4 years ago
15

Warrick Boards calculated pension expense for its underfunded pension plan as follows:

Business
1 answer:
faltersainse [42]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(i) PBO - Projected Benefit Obligation.

(ii) Pension Liability.

(iii) OCI - Other Comprehensive Income.

(iv) Retained Earnings.

Explanation:

(i) Service Cost and Interest Cost would result in increase of Projected Benefit Obligation (PBO), So;

PBO = Service Cost + Interest Cost

PBO = $354,000,000 + $215,000,000

PBO = $569,000,000

(ii) Plan Assets are increase by Expected Return of $154,000,000, and this amount will be deducted from the PBO because this has already been included in the Balance Sheet under Assets;

Pension Liability = PBO - Plan Assets

Pension Liability = $569,000,000 - $154,000,000

Pension Liability = $415,000,000

(iii) Other Comprehensive Income - OCI is the amortization of the Prior Service Cost that will reduce the OCI account during the period of time along with the loss on OCI which will also be accounted for, as follows;

OCI = Prior Service Cost + Net Loss

OCI = $21,000,000 + $4,000,000

OCI = $25,000,000

(iv) Retained Earnings will be decreased as pension will be paid from the retained earnings account and can be calculated as follows;

Retained Earnings = - Pension Expense + Prior Service Cost + Net Gain on plan assets + Net Loss on OCI

Retained Earnings = - $440,000,000 + $21,000,000 + $11,000,000 + $4,000,000

Retained Earnings = - $404,000,000

Hence Share holders' Equity will be reduced by $404,000,000.

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You are given the following information concerning Around Town Tours:Debt: 7,500, 6.8 percent coupon bonds outstanding, with 11
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

9.0%

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the WACC for this firm

First step

Common stock=284,000 × $68

Common stock= $19,312,000

Second step is to calculate the Preferred stock

Preferred stock=9,000 × $88

Preferred stock= $792,000

Debt= 7,500 × .979 × $1,000

Debt = $7,342,500

Value = $19,312,000 + 792,000 + $7,342,500

Value= $27,446,500

Second step

RE = .041 + 1.04(.146-.041)

RE= .1502

RE = ($2.62 /$68) + .025

RE= .0635

Average RE = (.1502+ .0635)/2

Average RE = .1069

RP = $8/$88

RP = .0909

Fourth step

$979 = [(.068 × $1,000) / 2] × ({1- 1 / [1 + (r/ 2)]22} / (r / 2)) + $1,000 / [1 + (r / 2)]22

r = 7.08 %

Now let calculate the WACC

WACC = ($19,312,000/$27,446,500)(.1069) + ($792,000/$27,446,500)(.0909) + ($7,342,500/$27,446,500)(.0708)(1 -.34)

WACC= .090*100

WACC=9.0 %

Therefore the WACC for this firm is 9.0%

7 0
3 years ago
explain how the price consumers pay for a good is influenced by the price of the resources that go into making it
Reika [66]

Answer:

Here's an example

I sell bead bracelets for $5.00. The chord I use to make them is $2.50 for 5 feet. Each bracelet needs 1/4 of a foot of chord. That is $0.13 worth of chord per bracelet. The beads I use are 30 beads for $1.00. I use 5 beads in each bracelet. That is $0.17 worth of beads per bracelet. The total price of the materials per bracelet is 30 cents. Let's say It takes me 10 minutes to make a single bracelet. If I sell the bracelet at 30 cents, I would no have made a profit and would instead lose 10 minutes of my time. If I sell it for anything less, I would be losing money and time. If I want to make a profit, I need to add the money I want to make plus the cost of resources. Therefore, if I want to make a profit of $4.70, I must sell the bracelets for $5.00.

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true about how the "invisible hand" influences economic activity through prices when a product has low
Virty [35]

Answer:

The correct answer is c.

Explanation:

Since the point the text is mentioning is above the equilibrium point, we know that the Demand is lower than it should be, while supply is bigger.

In order to increase the demand and lower the supply, we need to decrease the price to the equilibrium price. This will increase the demand and lower the supply making them intersect and reach the equilibrium point, a point that the invisible hand is influencing.

I hope this helps!

8 0
3 years ago
Koontz Company uses the perpetual inventory method. On January 1, Year 1, the company’s first day of operations, Koontz purchase
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

$ 8,970

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that $8,000 are estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doubtful A
joja [24]

Answer:

c. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $6,900.

Explanation:

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  $1,100 credit balance,

Estimated Un collectibles                $8000 credit

Required Adjustment                    $ 6900 credit

The adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a

c. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $6,900.

Bad Debt Expense $ 6900 Dr

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 6900 Cr

Alternatively if the allowance account had a debit balance the entry would have been posted adding the two amounts.

7 0
3 years ago
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