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4 years ago

Warrick Boards calculated pension expense for its underfunded pension plan as follows:

Business

1 answer:

faltersainse [42]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:

(i) PBO - Projected Benefit Obligation.

(ii) Pension Liability.

(iii) OCI - Other Comprehensive Income.

(iv) Retained Earnings.

Explanation:

(i) Service Cost and Interest Cost would result in increase of Projected Benefit Obligation (PBO), So;

PBO = Service Cost + Interest Cost

PBO = $354,000,000 + $215,000,000

PBO = $569,000,000

(ii) Plan Assets are increase by Expected Return of $154,000,000, and this amount will be deducted from the PBO because this has already been included in the Balance Sheet under Assets;

Pension Liability = PBO - Plan Assets

Pension Liability = $569,000,000 - $154,000,000

Pension Liability = $415,000,000

(iii) Other Comprehensive Income - OCI is the amortization of the Prior Service Cost that will reduce the OCI account during the period of time along with the loss on OCI which will also be accounted for, as follows;

OCI = Prior Service Cost + Net Loss

OCI = $21,000,000 + $4,000,000

OCI = $25,000,000

(iv) Retained Earnings will be decreased as pension will be paid from the retained earnings account and can be calculated as follows;

Retained Earnings = - Pension Expense + Prior Service Cost + Net Gain on plan assets + Net Loss on OCI

Retained Earnings = - $440,000,000 + $21,000,000 + $11,000,000 + $4,000,000

Retained Earnings = - $404,000,000

Hence Share holders' Equity will be reduced by $404,000,000.

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Which of the following exemplifies a benefit of good communication?

Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:E- Earlier warning of potential problems.

Explanation:Benefits of a good communication are numerous and are listed below:

1- It gives clarity and direction.

2-Effective communication skills provide clear and defined policies. 3-Organizational communication helps organization to be successful. 4- Effective interpersonal communication skills such as listening skills, making eye contact gives boost to your personality.

5- It informs of earlier warnings of potential problems.

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4 years ago

Schell Company manufactures automobile floor mats. It currently has two product lines, the Standard and the Deluxe. Schell has a

kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Schell has a total of $39,060 in overhead.

Direct labor hours:

Standard= 400

Deluxe= 200

Machine hours:

Standard= 4,150

Deluxe= 3,000

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

1) Direct labor hours as allocation rate

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 39,060/600= $65.1 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate to each product line:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Standard= 65.1*400= $26,040

Deluxe= 65.1*200= $13,020

2) Machine hour as allocation rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 39,060/7,150= $5.46 per machine hour

Now, we can allocate to each product line:

Standard= 5.46* 4,150= $22,659

Deluxe= 5.46*3,000= $16,380

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following would not be considered by a family owned business in their process of deciding to decide?

san4es73 [151]

A family owned business will consider the budget, profit, goal of the business, status of the business, among others. Although this business might have a difficulty considering the welfare of their employees when deciding an important deal. They will have a difficulty empathizing with their employees since they are more focus on their business than their people.

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3 years ago

1. The car dealer is offering a promotion on a new that the buyer pays zero interest over 72 months. The monthly payment is $350

inessss [21]

Answer:

selling price of this car is $22700

Explanation:

given data

zero interest = 72 months

monthly payment = $350

market interest rate = 3.5% per year = 0.2917 % per month

time = 6 year = 72 months

solution

we get here present value of annuity that is

present value annuity = ( 0.2917 % per month , 72 months )

present value annuity = 64.8568

so here selling price of car is

selling price = monthly payment × present value annuity ............1

selling price = $350 × 64.8568

selling price = $22700

so selling price of this car is $22700

8 0

3 years ago

You are the manager of a firm that manufactures front and rear windshields for the automobile industry. Due to economies of scal

Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

a. The optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0)

b. Yes, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because $\pi ^{Cheat}$ > $\pi ^{Cooperate}$ .

Explanation:

a. Determine your optimal pricing strategy if you and your rival believe that the new Highlander is a "special edition" that will be sold only for one year.

Note: See the attached excel file for the Representation of one shot normal for of the game played between "You" and "Your Rival" together with the payoffs.

From the attached excel file, the dominant strategy is for “You” and “Your Rival” to charge “Low Price” each. If the dominant strategy is played by “You” and “Your Rival”, the optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0).

b. Would your answer differ if you and your rival were required to resubmit price quotes year after year and if, in any given year, there was a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander? Explain.

When we have a year-after-year competition between “You” and “Your Rival” but with a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander, the payoffs of the firm that continue to comply with the collusive strategy of charging “High Price” by each firm under the normal trigger strategy whereby “You” and “Your Rival” agree to charge high price as long as there is no past deviation by any of the firm, otherwise charge a low price is as follows:

$\pi ^{Cooperate}$ = $6 + $6(100% - 60%) + $6(100% - 60%)^2 + 6(100% - 60%)^2 …….

$\pi ^{Cooperate}$ = $6 / 6% = $10

Therefore, what the firm that cheats earn today is $11 million and it earns $0 forever. The implication of this is that $\pi ^{Cheat}$ = $11

Therefore, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because $\pi ^{Cheat}$ > $\pi ^{Cooperate}$ .

Download xlsx

7 0

3 years ago