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lys-0071 [83]
3 years ago
13

In​ 2008, the required reserve ratio for a​ bank's first​ $9.3 million in checking account deposits was zero. It was 3 percent o

n deposits between​ $9.3 million and​ $43.9 million, and 10 percent on deposits above​ $43.9 million. In most​ cases, and for​ simplicity, we assume that the required reserve ratio is 10 percent on all deposits.​ Therefore, the simple deposit multiplier is 10. Is the​ real-world deposit multiplier greater​ than, less​ than, or equal to the simple deposit​ multiplier?
Business
1 answer:
Greeley [361]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

In most cases the deposits have a reserve ratio of 10% but in some cases the ratio is 0% and 3%, both these numbers are lower than 10. This means that in most cases the ratio is 10% and in some cases the ratio is less than 10 % so the real word deposit multiplier will be less than 10.

Explanation:

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matrenka [14]

Answer:

Monopolist can charge a higher price from women.

Explanation:

A monopolist is producing 100,000 units of a product.  

The price of the product is $5 per unit.  

The price elasticity of demand for men at this price is -3.5.

The price elasticity for women, on the other hand, is -0.8.

This means that the men have a relatively elastic demand for the product. While on the other hand, women have relatively inelastic demand. This implies that if the price is increased the demand from women will not change by a greater proportion.  

While demand from men can change to a greater proportion because of a change in price.  

In this situation, the firm can charge a higher price from women. This is an example of third-degree price discrimination.

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2 years ago
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3 years ago
Amanda, the sales manager at an e-commerce fashion site, decides the annual, monthly, and weekly targets of all the salespersons
enot [183]

Answer:

The correct answer is B: Planning.

Explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
A collateralized mortgage obligation pays a 2% coupon rate on the first tranche plus any prepayments until its $50 million par v
Sloan [31]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

b. Dominates a particular target market although its overall market share may be low.

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