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andreev551 [17]
4 years ago
12

4 times a number plus 16 is more than 28.

Mathematics
2 answers:
sdas [7]4 years ago
5 0
4x + 16 > 28
4x > 28 -16
4x > 12
x > 12/4
x > 3

hope this helps :)
umka21 [38]4 years ago
4 0
4*4= 16 + 16= 32 :) You could do 4 * 4 that equals 16 then add 16 to that to get over 28.
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HELLLLP BEST ANSWER GETS BRAINALIST!!!!!
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SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

The correct option is (A).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let <em>X</em> = number of orange  milk chocolate M&M’s.

The proportion of orange milk chocolate M&M’s is, <em>p</em> = 0.20.

The number of candies in a small bag of milk chocolate M&M’s is, <em>n</em> = 55.

The event of an milk chocolate M&M being orange is independent of the other candies.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution with parameter <em>n</em> = 55 and <em>p</em> = 0.20.

The expected value of a Binomial random variable is:

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Compute the expected number of orange  milk chocolate M&M’s in a bag of 55 candies as follows:

E(X)=np

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It is provided that in a randomly selected bag of milk chocolate M&M's there were 14 orange ones, i.e. the proportion of orange milk chocolate M&M's in a random bag was 25.5%.

This proportion is not surprising.

This is because the average number of orange milk chocolate M&M’s in a bag of 55 candies is expected to be 11. So, if a bag has 14 orange milk chocolate M&M’s it is not unusual at all.

All unusual events have a very low probability, i.e. less than 0.05.

Compute the probability of P (X ≥ 14) as follows:

P(X\geq 14)=\sum\limits^{55}_{x=14}{{55\choose x}0.20^{x}(1-0.20)^{55-x}}

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The probability of having 14 or more orange candies in a bag of milk chocolate M&M’s is 0.1968.

This probability is quite larger than 0.05.

Thus, the correct option is (A).

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