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zloy xaker [14]
3 years ago
7

During Year 5, Tedd Co. became involved in a tax dispute with the IRS. At December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that

an unfavorable outcome was probable. A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000. After the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000. What amount of accrued liability should Tedd have reported in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet
Business
1 answer:
kkurt [141]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$400,000

Explanation:

Since at December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that an unfavorable outcome was <u>probable</u>. And a <u>reasonable estimate </u>of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000.

Although after the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000.

Tedd should have included an amount of $400,000 as accrued liability in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet

The reason is that according to the International Financial Reporting Standards, a PROVISION must be made as long as the conditions below were obtainable at year end.

- Existing Condition (which in this case is the tax dispute with the IRS)

- Probable Cash Outflow (which Tedd's Tax adviser confirmed)

- Reliable Estimate of Outflow ( which the scenario stated ''A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000'')

Hence, such 'reasonable estimate is the appropriate amount for inclusion in the financial statements.

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Explain corporate bond interest in terms of cost of capital versus investor yields. also, explain the municipal bond interest in
astraxan [27]

A sort of financial product sold to investors is a corporate bond, which is issued by a business. The investor receives a predetermined amount of interest payments at either a fixed or variable interest rate in exchange for providing the firm with the money it requires.

The bond "reaches maturity" when it stops making payments and the initial investment is refunded.

The ability of the corporation to repay the bond often serves as its security, and this ability is based on its expectations for future revenues and profitability. Physical assets of the corporation may occasionally be utilized as collateral.

A state, municipality, or county may issue municipal bonds as a debt security to pay for capital projects like building roads, bridges, or schools. They can be compared to loans given to local governments by investors.

Municipal bonds are particularly appealing to those in higher income tax brackets because they are frequently exempt from federal taxes and the majority of state and local taxes (for residents).

To learn more about Corporate Bond and Municipal Bonds here

brainly.com/question/14116276

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7 0
2 years ago
Isabel, a calendar-year taxpayer, uses the cash method of accounting for her sole proprietorship. In late December she received
Olegator [25]

Answer:

The after-tax cost is $23,940

Explanation:

For computing the after-tax cost, first we have to compute the present value which is shown below:

Present value = Bill payment × marginal tax rate

                       = $38,000 × 37%

                       = $14,060

So, after tax value would equal to

= Bill payment or Pre tax value - Present value

= $38,000 - $14,060

= $23,940

8 0
3 years ago
Incorrect answer. Your answer is incorrect. Try again.
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

Dealer Market

Explanation:

In a dealer market, multiple dealers give out their various prices on the sales and purchases of their specific and particular security of instrument. It is a financial tool for dealers in the market. The dealer market becomes more efficient for financial securities because it provides superior mechanism which should be protected.

It enables buyers and sellers to buy and sell independently through the market makers, known as dealers.

Foreign exchange and bonds are found in the dealer market.

In the secondary market, securities are traded by investors while in the primary market, they are created.

3 0
3 years ago
"A registered representative who has passed the Series 63 examination wishes to sell managed accounts to customers in differing
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

The remaining part of the question is:

Which statement is TRUE?

A. The registered representative needs no further licenses to sell managed accounts

B. The registered representative must pass either the Series 65 or Series 66 examination to sell managed accounts

C. The registered representative must post a surety bond prior to selling managed accounts

D. The registered representative is prohibited from selling managed accounts

<u>Correct Answer:</u>

B. The registered representative must pass either the Series 65 or Series 66 examination to sell managed accounts .

Explanation:

Managed or wrap accounts are defined as "investment advisers" in most states. As such, the firm selling managed accounts must register as an investment adviser; and the individuals selling managed accounts for these firms must register as "investment adviser representatives" and pass either the Series 65 or Series 66 examination.

5 0
3 years ago
Jack corp. Has a profit margin of 5.1 percent, total asset turnover of 2.3, and roe of 19.64 percent. What is this firm's debt-e
anygoal [31]

Answer: Jack Corp's D/E ratio is 0.67.

We follow these steps to arrive at the answer:

We begin with the DuPont Identity for Return on Equity (RoE)

RoE = Net Profit Margin * Asset turnover Ratio * Equity Multiplier

Substituting the values from the question in the DuPont identity we get,

0.1964 = 0.051 * 2.3 * Equity Multiplier

Equity Multiplier = \frac{0.1964}{0.051*2.3}

Equity Multiplier = 1.674339301&#10;

Equity Multiplier = \frac{Total Assets }{Equity}

So,

\frac{1}{Equity multiplier} =\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}

Substituting the value of equity multiplier in the formula above we get,

\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} = 0.597250509

Now,

\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} + \frac{Debt}{Total Assets} =1

So,

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - \frac{Equity}{Total Assets}

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - 0.597250509&#10;

\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 0.402749491&#10;

Now that we have the proportions of debt and equity to total assets, we can  find the Debt Equity (D/E) ratio as follows:

\frac{D}{E} = \frac{\frac{Debt}{Total Assets}}{\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}}

Substituting the values we get,

\frac{D}{E} = \frac{0.402749491&#10;}{0.597250509&#10;}

\frac{D}{E} = 0.674339301&#10;

3 0
3 years ago
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