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zloy xaker [14]
3 years ago
7

During Year 5, Tedd Co. became involved in a tax dispute with the IRS. At December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that

an unfavorable outcome was probable. A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000. After the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000. What amount of accrued liability should Tedd have reported in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet
Business
1 answer:
kkurt [141]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$400,000

Explanation:

Since at December 31, Year 5, Tedd's tax advisor believed that an unfavorable outcome was <u>probable</u>. And a <u>reasonable estimate </u>of additional taxes was $400,000 but could be as much as $600,000.

Although after the Year 5 financial statements were issued, Tedd received and accepted an IRS settlement offer of $450,000.

Tedd should have included an amount of $400,000 as accrued liability in its December 31, Year 5 balance sheet

The reason is that according to the International Financial Reporting Standards, a PROVISION must be made as long as the conditions below were obtainable at year end.

- Existing Condition (which in this case is the tax dispute with the IRS)

- Probable Cash Outflow (which Tedd's Tax adviser confirmed)

- Reliable Estimate of Outflow ( which the scenario stated ''A reasonable estimate of additional taxes was $400,000'')

Hence, such 'reasonable estimate is the appropriate amount for inclusion in the financial statements.

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On March 1, Year 1, Gilmore Incorporated declared a cash dividend on its 1,500 outstanding shares of $50 par value, 6% preferred
Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

Dividend Declared (SCE) $4,500 (credit)

Shareholders for Dividends (SFP) $4,500 (credit)

Explanation:

When Dividends are declared, we recognize an Equity Element - Dividend Declared and a liability (Present Obligation that arises with declaration) to the Shareholders of the dividend.

<u>Entry :</u>

Dividend Declared (SCE) $4,500 (credit)

Shareholders for Dividends (SFP) $4,500 (credit)

Dividend Calculation = 1,500 × $50 × 6%

                                   = $4,500

8 0
3 years ago
Blossom Corp. has collected the following data concerning its maintenance costs for the past 6 months.
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

Variable  cost per unit = $1.5  per unit

Fixed cost = $14,558

Explanation:

Variable cost per unit

= cost at high activity - cost at low activity/High activity -low activity

=$(74,798- $41,663) / (40,160 -18,070) units

= $1.5  per unit

Fixed cost

Total fixed cost = cost at high activity - ( vc per unit × high activity)

= 74,798 - (1.5  × 40,160)

= $14,558

Variable  cost per unit = $1.5  per unit

Fixed cost = $14,558

5 0
3 years ago
Executives at Southwestern Construction have noticed that the company's construction team in the Phoenix office is more efficien
zimovet [89]

Answer:

The correct answer is (B)

Explanation:

Information is a significant resource for any organization, and it must be utilized to realize positive changes and further benefit. To engage different team will help the organisation to discuss databases, reports, records, documents, budget summaries, methodology, arrangements and it also helps to understand what other team are doing to get better results and what other things should be done to achieve efficiency

5 0
3 years ago
An asset falling under the MACRS five-year class was purchased three years ago for $200,000 (its original depreciation basis). C
Nitella [24]

Answer:

(a) The cash flows is $59,040.

(b) The cash flows is $71,040.

Explanation:

From the  Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) Tables, the depreciation rates for the first 3 years for an asset falling under the MACRS five-year class are 20%, 32% and 19.2%. Therefore, we have:

Accumulated depreciation rate = 20% + 32% + 19.2% = 71.20%

Accumulated depreciation = Cost of the asset * Accumulated depreciation rate =  $200,000 * 71.20% = $142,400

Net book value of the asset = Cost of the asset - Accumulated depreciation = $200,000 - $142,400 = $57,600

We can now proceed as follows:

(a) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $60,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $60,000 - $57,600 = $2,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $2,400 * 40% = $960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $60,000 - $960 = $59,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $59,040 net sales proceeds.

(b) Calculate the cash flows if the asset is sold now at $80,000

Capital gains = Sales proceeds - Net book value = $80,000 - $57,600 = $22,400

Capital gains tax = Capital gains * Tax rate = $22,400 * 40% = $8,960

Net sales proceeds = Sales proceeds - Capital gains tax = $80,000 - $8,960 = $71,040

Therefore, the cash flows is $71,040 net sales proceeds.

3 0
3 years ago
Under the allowance method, bad debts expense is recorded with an adjustment at the end of each accounting period that debits th
Crank

Answer:

Dr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts...1,200

Cr. Accounts Receivable....................................1,200

Explanation:

When a specific customer's account is identified as uncollectible, the journal entry to write off the account is:

A credit to Accounts Receivable (to remove the amount that will not be collected)

A debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts (to reduce the Allowance balance that was previously established)

Therefore the JOURNAL ENTRIES for the $1,200 uncollectible debt will be

Dr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts...1,200

Cr. Accounts Receivable....................................1,200

8 0
3 years ago
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