Ask question

Ask question

All categories

4 years ago

8

I WOULD LOOOOVE IF SOMEONE COULD ANSWER THIS RIGHT AS SOON AS THEY CAN !!!!!!The taxpayer identification number for partnerships

is abbreviated as Question 13 options: EIN. ARW. ECN. SSI.

2 answers:

vovikov84 [41]4 years ago

8 0

The person above is right, it’s EIN

xz_007 [3.2K]4 years ago

5 0

Answer:

EIN; employer idenification number.

Explanation:

hope this helps :)

You might be interested in

If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect

tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

8 0

3 years ago

Scenario: you work for an investment banking firm and have been asked by management of vestor corporation (not real), a software

Bas_tet [7]

Total capital = 10 + 8 + 2 = 20 Million

Weight of bonds (Wd) = 10/20 = 0.5

Weight of preferred stock(Wp) = 2/20 = 0.1

Weight of stock equity(We) = 8/20 = 0.4

Cost of debt = YTM of the bonds issued (We assume its annual coupon)

YTM =rate(nper,pmt,pv,fv) in excel =rate(20,60,-950,1000) = 6.4521%

Cost of debt after tax(Rd) = 6.4521*(1-0.34) = 4.2584%

Cost of preferred shares (Rp) = Preferred dividend/ price = 2.5/25 = 0.10 =10%

Cost of equity (Re) = Rf + beta*(Rm-Rf) = 3.5 + 1.2*(13-3.5) =14.9%

WACC = Wd*Rd + Wp*Rp + We& Re

WACC = 0.5*4.2584% +0.1*10% + 0.4*14.9% = 9.089 = 9.09%

3 0

3 years ago

A truck costing $12,100, which has Accumulated Depreciation of $9,010, was sold for $2,010 cash. The entry to record this event

blagie [28]

Answer:

Loss of $1,080

Explanation:

The correct journal entries would be:

Dr Accumulated Depreciation 9,010

Dr Cash 2,010

Dr Loss on sale 1,080

Cr Truck (Asset) 12,100

Thus, the correct answer is a loss of $1,080

3 0

4 years ago

Assume a par value of $1,000. Caspian Sea plans to issue a 9.00 year, semi-annual pay bond that has a coupon rate of 8.04%. If t

Llana [10]

Answer:

$1,015.96

Explanation:

The Price of the Bond (PV) can be calculated as follows :

Fv = $1,000

Pmt = ($1,000 × 8.04%) ÷ 2 = $40.20

n = 9 × 2 = 18

p/yr = 2

i = 7.79%

pv = ?

Using a financial calculator to input the values as shown above, the Price of the Bond (PV) is $1,015.96

6 0

3 years ago

You manage an equity fund with an expected risk premium of 12.4% and a standard deviation of 38%. The rate on Treasury bills is

timama [110]

The expected return = = 12.84 %.

The standard deviation = 22.8 %.

<u>Explanation</u>:

On the client's portfolio (total investment = 120 K + 80 K = 200 K,

The expected return

= (12.4 %risk premium + 5.4 %risk free return) $\times$ (120 K / 200 K) + 5.4 % $\times$ (80 K / 200 K)

= 17.8 % $\times$ 0.6 + 5.4 % $\times$ 0.4

= 12.84 %.

The standard deviation would be = 38 % $\times$ 0.6 + 0% $\times$ 0.4

= 22.8 %.

4 0

3 years ago