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ikadub [295]
4 years ago
5

Base your answer to the question on the diagrams shown below.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Galina-37 [17]4 years ago
5 0
The probability of drawing a red card and spinning a 1 are independent events, thus to get the probability of them occurring at the same time we shall have:
P(Red)×P(Spinning 1)
P(Red)=2/5
P(Spinning 1)=4/8=1/2
Thus:
P(Red)×P(Spinning 1)=1/2×2/5=1/5

zysi [14]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: \frac{1}{5}

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given picture, the total number of cards = 5

The number of red card = 2

Thus, the probability of drawing a red card P(red)=\frac{2}{5}

Also, total number of digits on spinner = 8

Number of 1's=4

Thus, the probability of  spinning a 1 P( spinning 1)=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}

Since both the events of drawing a red card and spinning a 1 are independent events, therefore, the probability of drawing a red card and then spinning a 1=\text{ P(red)}\times\text{P( spinning 1)}=\frac{2}{5}\times\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{5}

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cupoosta [38]
6 is what percent of 40?

Proportion: 

\frac{6}{40}= \frac{x}{100}
x = ?

6 × 100 = 600
600 ÷ 40 = x
600 ÷ 40 = 15
15%

6 is 15% of 40.
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3 years ago
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a card player selects a playing card from a well-shuffled deck of standard playing cards and sees if the card is a red card or n
DIA [1.3K]

It is not binomial random variable , since the number of red cards is unknown in the deck of cards in the starting of experiment.

As given in the question,

Number of cards are unknown.

Number of red cards are unknown in the starting of experiment.

Number of times process done =10

For binomial random variable number of red cards should be known.

Therefore, it is not binomial random variable , since the number of red cards is unknown in the deck of cards in the starting of experiment.

Learn more about binomial random variable here

brainly.com/question/14282621

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Answer:

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The apples logically cost 2 dollars each.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 0
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