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ikadub [295]
3 years ago
5

Base your answer to the question on the diagrams shown below.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Galina-37 [17]3 years ago
5 0
The probability of drawing a red card and spinning a 1 are independent events, thus to get the probability of them occurring at the same time we shall have:
P(Red)×P(Spinning 1)
P(Red)=2/5
P(Spinning 1)=4/8=1/2
Thus:
P(Red)×P(Spinning 1)=1/2×2/5=1/5

zysi [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: \frac{1}{5}

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given picture, the total number of cards = 5

The number of red card = 2

Thus, the probability of drawing a red card P(red)=\frac{2}{5}

Also, total number of digits on spinner = 8

Number of 1's=4

Thus, the probability of  spinning a 1 P( spinning 1)=\frac{4}{8}=\frac{1}{2}

Since both the events of drawing a red card and spinning a 1 are independent events, therefore, the probability of drawing a red card and then spinning a 1=\text{ P(red)}\times\text{P( spinning 1)}=\frac{2}{5}\times\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{5}

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