Answer:
Multiply each term in −1/8y≤34 by −8. When multiplying or dividing both sides of an inequality by a negative value, flip the direction of the inequality sign.
−1/8y x −8 ≥ 34 x −8 Simplify −1/8y x −8
y ≥ 34 x −8
Multiply 34 by −8.
y≥−272
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The second option will cost her less than the first one.
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to solve this problem we will create two functions to represent the cost of the car in function of the miles drove by her.
For the first option we have:

For the second option we have:

Since she intends to drive it for 10,000 miles per year for 6 years, then the total mileage she intends to drive her car is 60,000 miles. Applying this to the formula of each car and we have:


The second option will cost her less than the first one.
Answer:
Ray.
Step-by-step explanation:
Lines have no endpoints, while rays have 1 endpoint (:
24 is the answer you are looking for
First, replace f(x) with y.
So we have now:
y = 3x + 1
Next, switch the x and y.
We get:
x = 3y + 1
Finally, solve for y.
3y = x - 1
y = x/3 - 1/3
So, we have f(x) = 3x + 1, and the inverse of this function is: