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2 years ago

M=0 passing through p(-2,-2)

Mathematics

1 answer:

valentinak56 [21]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

The equation of line is y+2=0

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of line passing through the point $(x_{1},y_{1} )$ and having slope m is

$y-y_{1} = m (x-x_{1}$

Given slope m=0 and given point is is (-2,-2)

$y-(-2)=0(x-(-2))$

$y+2=0$

therefore equation of the straight line is $y+2=0$

Therefore the straight is parallel to negative x-axis(y=-2)

You might be interested in

Which expression can be used to find 80% of 120?

Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

C.(0.8) (120)

Step-by-step explanation:

0.8 = 80%

of means multiply, therefore, 0.8 x 120 equals 80% of 120.

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

2 years ago

3(r+2)+5(2-r) =-32 can someone tell em the answer to that please

Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

r = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

3(r+2)+5(2−r)=−32

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

3(r+2)+5(2−r)=−32

(3)(r)+(3)(2)+(5)(2)+(5)(−r)=−32(Distribute)

3r+6+10+−5r=−32

(3r+−5r)+(6+10)=−32(Combine Like Terms)

−2r+16=−32

Step 2: Subtract 16 from both sides.

−2r+16−16=−32−16

−2r=−48

Step 3: Divide both sides by -2.

−2r/-2 = -48/-2

r = 24

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A=1/2f(r+z), solve for r

marin [14]

Answer: $\frac{2A}{f} -2=f$

Step-by-step explanation:

A=1/2(r+2)

2A=f(r+2)

2A/f=r+2

2A/f-2=r

7 0

1 year ago

The price of an item has increased 15% since last year. However, a person can buy the item for a 25% employee discount. The empl

ANEK [815]

Answer: $200

Explanation:

The employee pays $172.50 and he got 25% employee discount.

If the cost is $100, he pays $(100 - 25) = $75.

So, employee pays =

100

⋅

172.50

= $230.00.

Again, price was increased by 15% last year. So whose cost is $100

is sold by $(100+15) = $115.

When sell price is $115, then cost price is $100. Then,

when sell price is $230, then cost price is

100

115

⋅

230

= $200.

5 0

2 years ago