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Anton [14]
3 years ago
12

If a U.S.-based MNC focused completely on importing, then its valuation would likely be adversely affected if most currencies we

re expected to appreciate against the dollar over time. True False
Business
1 answer:
Zepler [3.9K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The answer is True

Explanation:

The costs incurred by the U.S.-based MNC will be relatively higher.

You might be interested in
Using the aging method of accounts receivable method, $5,000 of the company's Accounts Receivable are estimated to be uncollecti
romanna [79]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

Closing/Ending balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts = Unadjusted credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts + Bad Debt Expense

To get Bad Debt Expense, we re-write the formula:.

Closing/Ending balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts − Unadjusted ending credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

Ending/Closing method balance in allowance for doubtful debt= $5,000

Unadjusted ending credit (debit) balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts =$500

So we have:

= $5,000 − $500

= $4,500

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
"Many Coca-Cola bottlers increase the price of Coke because the price of corn syrup (an important ingredient in Coke production)
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

b

Explanation:

5 0
4 years ago
A report’s "skimmability" means ________. that the information provided is not important that you should skip a certain portion
k0ka [10]

Answer: Helping make the report accessible by using a readable font, headings, lists, and white space.

Explanation:

For a report to be skimmable, it means that the report is capable of being read through quickly. The is very important in the business world because most executives barely have time but have to keep up to date witu reports and so prefer skimmable reports.

For a report to be skimmable though it needs to be very clear and concise. The reader must be able to grasp the important information quickly. This is why the report must be accessible by using a readable font, headings, lists, and white space. They will ensure that the reader gets the information needed simply by reading through.

6 0
3 years ago
Nash Company purchases equipment on January 1, Year 1, at a cost of $480,000. The asset is expected to have a service life of 12
kati45 [8]

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

1. Under the straight line method

= (Purchase value of an equipment - salvage value) ÷ (service life)

= ($480,000 - $43,200) ÷ (12 years)

= ($436,800) ÷ (12 years)  

= $36,400

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

So

Year 1 = $36,400

Year 2 = $36,400

Year 3 = $36,400

2. Under the sum of the years digit method

Depreciation factor is

= n × (n + 1) ÷ 2

= 12 × (12 + 1) ÷ 2

= 78

Now the depreciation expense is

Year 1

=  ($480,000 - $43,200)  × (12 years) ÷ (78 years)

= $67,200

Year 2

=  ($480,000 - $43,200)  × (11 years) ÷ (78 years)

= $61,600

Year 3

=  ($480,000 - $43,200)  × (10 years) ÷ (78 years)

= $56,000

4 0
3 years ago
The seller and the buyer agreed to a purchase price of $270,000 with the closing to occur on June 15. The seller's loan balance
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

Loan balance is $170,000

Interest Due is $425

Explanation:

Loan outstanding is the amount of liability which payable by the business at any date. Interest is charged on the loan, yearly, semiannually, quarterly and monthly.

On Closing Day only 15 of interest has been accrued.

Interest Expense = Loan outstanding x Interest rate x Time portion = $170,000 x 6% x 15/360 = $425

So, Loan balance is $170,000

Interest Due is $425

3 0
3 years ago
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