Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
6194.84
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the formula for calculating accumulated annuity amount
F = P × ([1 + I]^N - 1 )/I
Where P is the payment amount. I is equal to the interest (discount) rate and N number of duration
For 40 years,
X = 100[(1 + i)^40 + (1 + i)^36 + · · ·+ (1 + i)^4]
=[100 × (1+i)^4 × (1 - (1 + i)^40]/1 − (1 + i)^4
For 20 years,
Y = A(20) = 100[(1+i)^20+(1+i)^16+· · ·+(1+i)^4]
Using X = 5Y (5 times the accumulated amount in the account at the ned of 20 years) and using a difference of squares on the left side gives
1 + (1 + i)^20 = 5
so (1 + i)^20 = 4
so (1 + i)^4 = 4^0.2 = 1.319508
Hence X = [100 × (1 + i)^4 × (1 − (1 + i)^40)] / 1 − (1 + i)^4
= [100×1.3195×(1−4^2)] / 1−1.3195
X = 6194.84
Answer:
24m-28
Step-by-step explanation:
4*6m=24m
-7*4=-28
24m -28
Answer:
6 7/8
Step-by-step explanation:
Since 1 cup of rice is added to 2 3/4 water
We are to determine the Amount of water to be to 2 1/2 cups of rice
Let the unknown number for water be x
So let's solve
1 cup of rice=11/4 water
5/2 cup of rice=x water
Cross multiply
x=5/2×11/4
x=55/8
X=6 7/8
Therefore,6 7/8 water is needed
8hrs = 480mins
6hrs = 360 mins
472/480 = 0.983...
0.983... x 360 = 354
D) 354
