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Ksivusya [100]
3 years ago
6

Suppose your expenses for this term are as follows: tuition: $10,000, room and board: $6,000, books and other educational suppli

es: $1,000. further, during the term, you can only work part-time and earn $8,000 instead of your full-time salary of $20,000. what is the opportunity cost of going to college this term, assuming that your room and board expenses would be the same even if you did not go to college?
Business
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
6 0
Opportunity cost is the loss due to forgoing one opportunity to select another one alternative.

In this case, the forgone alternative is the full-time employment and other expenses for the term when the alternative chosen is to be in school. In this case, room and board expenses remain the same whether in school or working full time and thus not considered. The part-time amount earned while at school is subtracted as it would be compensated be during full time employment.

Therefore;
Opportunity cost = $20,000+$10,000+$1,000-$8,000 = $23,000
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What's the difference between a brand-name and a generic product? A. The company that sells the product B. The side effects of t
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The quality should be about the same.

The social responsibility should also be about the same.

There shouldn't be side effects of most products. If you are speaking of medications, there really ought to be the same side effects with the same severity and the same statistical occurrences.

The only difference is the company selling the product.

There have been exceptions to this where different "fillers" were used in the generic brand and the side effects were different and more severe. I've only heard of one case however and I cannot remember what it was. Manufacturers were careful not to let it happen again.

4 0
4 years ago
As Bart Brownlee approached retirement, he decided the time had come to invest some of his nest egg in a conservative fund. He c
Serga [27]

Answer:

$1,275

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of commission for paying is shown below:

= Invested amount × fund charges a load percentage

= $30,000 × 4.25%

= $1,275

By multiplying the invested amount with the fund charges a load percentage we can easily calculate the amount of commission and the same is to be considered

8 0
3 years ago
The Retained earnings account has a credit balance of $23,800 before closing entries are made. Of total revenues for the period
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

The ending balance in the retained earnings account is $31400.

Explanation:

The ending balance in the retained earnings accounts is equal to the opening balance of the retained earnings account plus the addition to the retained earnings for the year.

The addition to retained earnings will be the Net income less dividends.

The net income for the year was = 75200 - 55000 = $20200

Addition to Retained earnings = 20200 - 12600   = $7600

Closing balance of retained earnings = 23800 + 7600  = $31400

4 0
3 years ago
A standard "money demand" function used by macroeconomists has the form ln( ) = + ln( ) + m β , 0 β1 GDP β2R Where m is the quan
kvasek [131]

Answer:

1.The money demand will rise by 1.154%

2. The money demanded will fall and for a 1% increase in interest , the money demanded will fall by 0.38%

Explanation:

1. Money demand function

ln(m) = β0 +β1 ln(GDP)+β2R

Suppose β1 = 1.5 , β2 = −0.04 , GDP = $ 100 & R = 3%

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($100) - 0.04 X 0.03

ln(m) = 6.91

m = 1002.247

Suppose the GDP increases by 1%; the new GDP will be = $ 101  

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($101) - 0.04 X 0.03

ln(m) = 6.92

m = 1013.81

If the GDP increases by 1% ,the money demand will rise by 1.154%

2.

If the interest rate increases from 3% to 4%

ln(m) = 1.5 ln ($100) - 0.04 X 0.04  

ln(m) = 6.906155

m = $ 998.400

If the interest rate rises from 3% to 4% , the money demanded will fall and for a 1% increase in interest , the money demanded will fall by 0.38%

3 0
3 years ago
For a binomial experiment with r successes out of n trials, what value do we use as a point estimate for the probability of succ
trapecia [35]

Answer: \dfrac{r}{n}

Explanation:

If r is the number of successes out of n trials , then the sample proportion of success = \hat{p}=\dfrac{r}{n}

For binomial experiment , if the population probability of success p on a single trial is not given , then the best point estimate for probability of success p on a single trial is the sample proportion of successes.

i.e. a point estimate for the probability of success p on a single trial :

p=\hat{p}=\dfrac{r}{n}

Hence, a point estimate for the probability of success p on a single trial = \dfrac{r}{n}

4 0
4 years ago
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