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Ksivusya [100]
3 years ago
6

Suppose your expenses for this term are as follows: tuition: $10,000, room and board: $6,000, books and other educational suppli

es: $1,000. further, during the term, you can only work part-time and earn $8,000 instead of your full-time salary of $20,000. what is the opportunity cost of going to college this term, assuming that your room and board expenses would be the same even if you did not go to college?
Business
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
6 0
Opportunity cost is the loss due to forgoing one opportunity to select another one alternative.

In this case, the forgone alternative is the full-time employment and other expenses for the term when the alternative chosen is to be in school. In this case, room and board expenses remain the same whether in school or working full time and thus not considered. The part-time amount earned while at school is subtracted as it would be compensated be during full time employment.

Therefore;
Opportunity cost = $20,000+$10,000+$1,000-$8,000 = $23,000
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Evaluation of the amount of costs incurred should be based on the actual volume of activity rather than the planned volume of ac
inna [77]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The Performance Evaluation may be defined as the formal as well as a productive procedure to help measure the work of the employee and results is based on their job responsibilities.

For any performance evaluation, the cost that is actually incurred should not be compared to the cost which would have been incurred to the actual volume of the activity or work rather than the planned activity.

Thus the answer is false.

8 0
3 years ago
For the Dividend Growth Model, the equation can be written as follows: P0 = =D1/(RE – g). How can this equation be rearranged?
zmey [24]

Answer:

C) RE = D1/P0 + g

Explanation:

The formula above is the cost of retained earnings or the cost of equity.

The first portion of the formula (D1/P0) is known as dividend yield which is simply dividend divided by price.

The second part(g) is known as the growth rate of dividends.

The initial formula is rearranged thus:

P0=D1/(RE – g)

P0*(RE – g)=D1

RE – g=D1/P0

RE=D1/P0+g

4 0
3 years ago
The Risk Premium is:
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": The difference between the expected YTM and the YTM of the comparable risk-free bond .

Explanation:

Risk Premium is a return that exceeds the risk-free rate of return that the investment is expected to yield. The risk premium for an asset takes the form of compensation for investors who tolerate the additional risk of an investment compared to the risk-free asset. In fact, investors expect to receive risk premiums because of the risk they are engaged in with certain investment instruments.

7 0
3 years ago
Imagine that in 2019 the economy is in long-run equilibrium. Then stock prices rise more than expected and stay high for some ti
V125BC [204]

In the short-run, the effect on the price level and the real GDP is <em>a. Both the </em><em>price level </em><em>and </em><em>real GDP </em><em>rise.</em>

Since the economy is in long-run equilibrium in 2019, and the stock prices unexpectedly rise and stay high for a long time, it means that the price level does not:

  • Rise while the real GDP falls
  • Fall while the real GDP rises
  • Fall with the real GDP.

<u>Question Options</u>:

a. both the price level and real GDP rise.

b. the price level rises and real GDP falls.

c. the price level falls and real GDP rises.

d. both the price level and real GDP fall.

Thus, in the short-term of this economy both the price level and real GDP rise.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/13029724

6 0
3 years ago
You think that in 15 years it will cost $214,000 to provide your child with a 4-year collge education. Will you have enough if y
prisoha [69]

Answer:

You will not have enough.

Explanation:

The rate of the investment is compounded, so the value at year 1, will be the value at year 0, increased in a 4%. Then, the value at year 2 will be the value at year 1, increased in other 4%, that's equal to the value at year 0 increased twice at 4%.

So, the formula to calculating the value at year 15 is 75,000*(1.04)^15 = 135,070.63. THen, it will not be enough. You have to invest at least 214,000/1.04^15 = 118,826.20 at year 0, at a rate of 4%.

8 0
3 years ago
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