Answer:
False
Explanation:
The Performance Evaluation may be defined as the formal as well as a productive procedure to help measure the work of the employee and results is based on their job responsibilities.
For any performance evaluation, the cost that is actually incurred should not be compared to the cost which would have been incurred to the actual volume of the activity or work rather than the planned activity.
Thus the answer is false.
Answer:
C) RE = D1/P0 + g
Explanation:
The formula above is the cost of retained earnings or the cost of equity.
The first portion of the formula (D1/P0) is known as dividend yield which is simply dividend divided by price.
The second part(g) is known as the growth rate of dividends.
The initial formula is rearranged thus:
P0=D1/(RE – g)
P0*(RE – g)=D1
RE – g=D1/P0
RE=D1/P0+g
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The difference between the expected YTM and the YTM of the comparable risk-free bond
.
Explanation:
Risk Premium is a return that exceeds the risk-free rate of return that the investment is expected to yield. The risk premium for an asset takes the form of compensation for investors who tolerate the additional risk of an investment compared to the risk-free asset. In fact, investors expect to receive risk premiums because of the risk they are engaged in with certain investment instruments.
In the short-run, the effect on the price level and the real GDP is <em>a. Both the </em><em>price level </em><em>and </em><em>real GDP </em><em>rise.</em>
Since the economy is in long-run equilibrium in 2019, and the stock prices unexpectedly rise and stay high for a long time, it means that the price level does not:
- Rise while the real GDP falls
-
Fall while the real GDP rises
-
Fall with the real GDP.
<u>Question Options</u>:
a. both the price level and real GDP rise.
b. the price level rises and real GDP falls.
c. the price level falls and real GDP rises.
d. both the price level and real GDP fall.
Thus, in the short-term of this economy both the price level and real GDP rise.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/13029724
Answer:
You will not have enough.
Explanation:
The rate of the investment is compounded, so the value at year 1, will be the value at year 0, increased in a 4%. Then, the value at year 2 will be the value at year 1, increased in other 4%, that's equal to the value at year 0 increased twice at 4%.
So, the formula to calculating the value at year 15 is 75,000*(1.04)^15 = 135,070.63. THen, it will not be enough. You have to invest at least 214,000/1.04^15 = 118,826.20 at year 0, at a rate of 4%.