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Ksivusya [100]
3 years ago
6

Suppose your expenses for this term are as follows: tuition: $10,000, room and board: $6,000, books and other educational suppli

es: $1,000. further, during the term, you can only work part-time and earn $8,000 instead of your full-time salary of $20,000. what is the opportunity cost of going to college this term, assuming that your room and board expenses would be the same even if you did not go to college?
Business
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
6 0
Opportunity cost is the loss due to forgoing one opportunity to select another one alternative.

In this case, the forgone alternative is the full-time employment and other expenses for the term when the alternative chosen is to be in school. In this case, room and board expenses remain the same whether in school or working full time and thus not considered. The part-time amount earned while at school is subtracted as it would be compensated be during full time employment.

Therefore;
Opportunity cost = $20,000+$10,000+$1,000-$8,000 = $23,000
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How long does negative information stay on your credit report
Tomtit [17]

Depends of the negatives info but typically around 7 years

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Ayayai Corp. purchased $7990 worth of laundry supplies on June 2 and recorded the purchase as an asset. On June 30, an inven
sesenic [268]

Explanation:

The adjusted journal entry is shown below:

Corp Laundry supplies Expense A/c Dr $6,580

       To Corp Laundry supplies A/c $6,580

(Being the corp supplies expense is recorded)

It is computed below:

= Purchased value of laundry supplies - still on hand

= $7,990 - $1,410

= $6,580

The answer is correct but The options that are given are incorrect.

8 0
3 years ago
Cairns owns 80 percent of the voting stock of Hamilton, Inc. The parent’s interest was acquired several years ago on the date th
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

hello your question has a missing journal entry table attached below is the entry journal table completely filled

Explanation:

Amount of bonds acquired = 40% of original bond

i) Bonds payable = 40% * 1,300,000

                           = $520000

purchase price of bonds = $520000 * 96% ( FACE VALUE )

                                         = $499200

hence the annual amortization

(bonds payable - purchase price of bonds ) / 10 years - 2 years

(520000 - 499200 ) / 8  = $20800/8 = $2600

ii) premium on bonds payable

$20800 - $2600 = $18200

cash amount = $520000 * 8% = $41600

intra entity expense and income table is attached below

from the table

iii) intra-entity interest expense = $39000 and the

iv) intra-entity interest income = $44200

v) investment in bonds

purchase price of bonds + annual amortization

= $499200 + $2600 = $501800

the book value on bonds as at 1st January 2011

=$1300000 * 105% = $1365000

Premium on bonds as at January 1st 2011

= $1365000 - $1300000 = $65000

amortization of premium as at January 1st 2011

=( ($65000) / 10 years ) * 2 years

= $13000

hence the controlling interest in bonds payable = $540800

vi) gains on retirement bonds

=  $540800 - $499200 = $41600

attached below is the journal entry on 31st December 2013

5 0
3 years ago
Icy Mocha Company estimates its factory overhead costs to be $35,000 and machine hours to be 5,000 for the year. If the actual h
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

$160 overapplied

Explanation:

Icy Mocha company estimates it's factory overhead costs to be $35,000 and machine hours to be 5,000 for a period of one year.

The actual number of hours worked on job 333 and 334 equals a total of 4,980

The actual factory overhead costs are $34,700

The first step is to calculate the predetermined overhead rate

= Overhead costs/machine hours

= $35,000/5,000

= $7

The amount of either over or underapplied factory costs can be calculated as follows

= predetermined overhead rate×actual number of hours worked

= $7×4,980

= $34,860

The amount is then subtracted from the actual overhead costs

= $34,700-$34860

= -$160

= $160 overapplied

Hence the amount of overapplied factory overhead is $160

4 0
3 years ago
Because of the compounding effect:
luda_lava [24]

Answer: c. small changes in economic growth rate lead to large GDP changes over time.

Explanation:

If there is even a small change in the rate at which the economy is growing, this increase will increase by even more the year afterward and then even more as time goes on. This is because the interest is being compounded overtime.

Look at the future value formula that shows compounding for instance:

Future value = Amount * (1 + rate) ^ number of periods

Assume even a change of 2% in the growth rate. In 30 years, this rate would have increased the economy by:

= 1 * ( 1 + 2%)³⁰

= 1.81

Which is a rate of:

= 1.81 - 1

= 81%

What started off as only 2% became 81% in 30 years. This is what compounding does.

6 0
2 years ago
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