Answer:
PV= $9,626.49
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $1,500
Interest rate= 9%
Number of years= 10
First, we will determine the future value, using the following formulas:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= cash flow
FV= {1,500*[(1.09^10) - 1]} / 0.09
FV= $22,789.395
Now, the present value:
PV=FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 22,789.395/(1.09^10)
PV= $9,626.49
Answer:
Texas will be a better option as the net pay after income tax is higher than the other cities.
Explanation:
To consider the after-tax wages we must subtract the income taxes from the salaries:
Pennsylvania after tax income: 62,000 x (1-3.07%) = 60,096.6
Texas after tax income: 64,000
New York after tax income: 68,000 x ( 1 - 6.85%) = 63,342
Answer:
The debit to the retained earning should be $750,000 for this transaction because that is the market value of the asset to be distributed as dividend.
Explanation:
Property dividend is a form of dividend payout that involves distribution of company`s assets to equity holders as a form of return. These assets can be inventory, marketable securities or investment in a subsidiary.
For this distribution to be formal, it must be approved by the board of directors of the company. After approved and declared, the accounting entries can now be passed.
The accounting entries needed are:
Debit: Retained Earnings with the amount of the asset distributed.
Credit: Dividend Payable with the amount of the asset distributed.
It is important to note that the market value of asset to be distributed should be considered i.e the market value of the asset must be recognized in the book. The difference in book value and market value of the investment will be recognized in respective asset ledger account prior transfer to retained earnings.So that the market value of the investment is recognized on the debit side of retained earnings
In the case of Fitzgerald, $750,000 will be debited to retained earnings since it is the market value of the asset to be distributed.
Answer:
Kindly check explanation
Explanation:
Implementing plans where functional managers will be held responsible for cost overruns against their original estimate possess both advantages and disadvantages :
The advantages include:
1) Efficient use of Resources : A functional manager could be explained as the head or a person who has managerial authority over a department within a business organization. As such the functional manager will be able to monitor more effectively and take control of his unit. Holding them responsible for cost overruns will ensure that they are more cautious when it comes to resource and cost management as they will not want to be sanctioned.
11) ACCOUNTABILITY: It increases the sense of responsibility of the functional managers as they are being held fully responsible for the decisions made within their unit. This places a higher burden of showing sincerity on the managers.
The disadvantage associated with the plan is the possibility of producing low quality products resulting from the economical and cautious approach embarked upon in other to prevent cost overrun, materials used may be lesser quality than expected.
Answer:
Distributing work among his subordinates and arranging their shifts and tasks to be performed is related most closely to controlling and analyzing performance against goals managerial function.
Explanation:
A manager is who is in charge of departments in companies, guiding the people, making decisions planning for better.
The are four functions of management in industries include distributing work among subordinates and arranging their shifts and tasks to be performed, controlling a workflow, analyzing performance against goals and leading to internal goals achievement.