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astra-53 [7]
4 years ago
10

"A new machine, with a 4-year life, has an initial cost of $1,200 and annual costs of $380. The equivalent annual cost of this m

achine is best described as the"
Business
1 answer:
Oksana_A [137]4 years ago
8 0

Question

A new machine, with a 4-year life, has an initial cost of $1,200 and annual costs of $380. The equivalent annual cost of this machine is best described as the"

Assuming an interest rate of 10%

Note the interest rate was added by the tutor

Answer:

Equivalent Annual cost =  $758.56

Explanation:

The equivalent annual cost is the present value of cost of the new machine divided by the annuity factor.

PV of annuity cost = A× 1- (1+r)^(-n)/r

                          A- 380, r- 10% n- 4

PV of annual cost = 380 × (1- 1.1^(-4))/0.1=1,204.55

PV of total cost = 1,204.55 + 1,200 = 2,404.55

Equivalent annual cost = PV of cost /Annuity factor

Annuity factor =(1- 1.1^(-4))/0.1 = 3.1699

Equivalent Annual cost = 2,404.55 / 3.1699 = $758.5649

Equivalent Annual cost =  $758.56

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Consider the following information for Evenflow Power Co., Debt: 5,000 6.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 1
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of debt by solving for the discount rate which makes the future coupon payment and maturity of the bond equal to 1,020

This is solved using excel or a financial calculator

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 32.50

time 34

<em>rate 0.03153274</em>

32.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.03153274)^{-34} }{0.0315327401919093} = PV\\

PV $672.0015

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   34.00

<em> rate  0.03153274</em>

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.03153274)^{34} } = PV  

PV   348.00

PV c $672.0015

PV m  $347.9985

Total $1,020.0000

<u>annual cost of debt:</u>

0.031532 x 2 = 0.063064 = 6.31%

<u>debt outstanding:</u>

5,000 bonds x $ 1,000  x 102/100 = 5,100,000

<u>equity</u>:

105,000 shares x $59 each = 6,195,000

For  the equity we solve using CAMP

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.085

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.17

Ke= 0.05 + 1.17 (0.085)

<u>Ke 0.14945</u>

Now we solve for the WACC

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

D  5,100,000

E  6,195,000

V  11,295,000

Equity weight 0.5485

Debt Weight 0.4515

Ke 0.14945

Kd 0.0631

t 0.34

WACC = 0.14945(0.5485) + 0.0631(1-0.34)(0.4515)

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

7 0
3 years ago
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