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gulaghasi [49]
3 years ago
13

Criminal law is concerned with a. the prosecution of private individuals by other private individuals. b. the prosecution of pub

lic officials by private individuals. c. the relief available when a person’s rights are violated. d. wrongs committed against the public as a whole.
Business
1 answer:
Agata [3.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

d.

Explanation:

Criminal law is a branch of the United States Justice System which deals with all types of crimes. Criminal law is mostly concerned with wrongs committed against the public as a whole. Such crimes include anything that can be perceived as being threatening or harmful to the property, health or safety of the population or an individual.

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A company currently pays a dividend of $2.8 per share (D0 = $2.8). It is estimated that the company's dividend will grow at a ra
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Intrinsic value: 53.41 dollars

Explanation:

First, we use the CAPM model to know the value of the stock

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free 0.085

premium market =(market rate - risk free) = 0.045

beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.3

Ke= 0.085 + 1.3 (0.045)  

Ke 0.14350

Now we need to know the present value of the future dividends:

D0 = 2.8

D1 = D0 x (1+g) = 2.8 * 1.23 = 3.444

D2 3.444 x 1.23 = 4.2361200

The next dividends, which are at perpetuity will we solve using the dividned grow model:

\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

In this case dividends will be:

4.23612 x 1.07 = 4.5326484

return will be how return given by CAPM and g = 7%

plug this into the Dividend grow model.

\frac{4.5326484}{0.1435 - 0.07} = Intrinsic \: Value

value of the dividends at perpetity: 61.6686857

FInally is important to note this values are calculate in their current year. We must bring them to present day using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

\frac{3.444}{(1 + 0.1435)^{1} } = PV

3.011805859

\frac{4.23612}{(1 + 0.1435)^{2} } = PV

3.239633762

\frac{61.6686857}{(1 + 0.1435)^{2}} = PV

47.16201531

We add them and get the value of the stock:

53.413455

5 0
3 years ago
Producer surplus equals a. Value to buyers - Costs of sellers. b. Amount received by sellers - Costs of sellers. c. Value to buy
aev [14]

Answer:

Amount received by sellers - Costs of sellers. 

Explanation:

Producer surplus is the difference between the price of a good and the cost to sellers. It is the difference between price and the least amount sellers would be willing to sell their products.

Consumer surplus is the difference between the price at which the consumer values the good and the price of the good.

Consumer surplus = Value to buyers - Amount paid by buyers.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors. True or false?.
MrMuchimi

True. One reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.

<h3>What is a predetermined overhead rate?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the allocation rate that is used in the determination of the estimated cost of the manufacturing overhead. It is used to show in either the order of the product or that of the job.

Hence based on this question we can say that it is true because the reason to use a predetermined overhead rate is to eliminate the effect of seasonal factors.

Read more on overhead rate here: brainly.com/question/13312583

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Bramble Corp. incurs the following costs to produce 13000 units of a subcomponent: Direct materials $10920 Direct labor 14690 Va
Mumz [18]

Answer:

$4,850

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Total cost when the production is 13,000 units

Direct materials $10,920

Direct labor $14,690

Variable overhead $16,380

Total $41,900

And, the other case

Their new cost on supplier offer is

= $2.85 × 13,000 units

= $37,050

In the case when the order is accepted So the net income would increased by

= $41,900 - $37,050

= $4,850

7 0
3 years ago
Interest rates rise faster in Scotland (GBP) than they do in the United States (USD). Which nation’s currency appreciates? Which
patriot [66]

There is very simple logic between demand and supply. When demand is high, price rises and currency appreciates in its value. On the other hand, price should decline if import rate is mare compared with export rates. As prices of U.S goods increases which ultimately goes to international market where producers have to pay domestic currencies. Americans will demands comparatively less expensive goods. So it will result in supplying more dollars to foreign exchange market.

Finally, increasing demand of pounds. Finally, U.S dollars appreciates and pound depreciates. Trade value is amount by which total import value deviates from export value. Due to changes in interest rates results in trade imbalance in U.S. There is not greater effect on Scotland as it is key player in transporting of energy products to rest of U.K.

6 0
3 years ago
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