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3 years ago

Pete’s grade on a test was within 5 points of his class average of 94. What is his range of grades on the test?

Mathematics

2 answers:

d1i1m1o1n [39]3 years ago

7 0

I'm pretty sure it would be 89-99.

irga5000 [103]3 years ago

6 0

Answer: 89 to 99

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the range of data is given by :-

$\overline{x}\pm E$ , where $\overline{x}$ ios the average of data and E is the margin of error.

Given : Margin of error = $\pm 5$

Class average = $94$

Then, the range of grades on the test will be :-

$94\pm 5=(94-5,\ 94+5)=(89,\ 99)$

Hence, the range of grades on the test = 89 to 99

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Which is greater than or less than

poizon [28]

Answer:

C. -2/3 < -0.8

F. -3/5 < -0.35

Therefor, -2/3 is less than -0.8.

And, -3/5 is also less than -0.35.

Also, you could turn the fractions into decimals to make your life easier for example, -3/5 into decimal form is -0.6.

And -2/3 into decimal form is -0.6666

* Hopefully this helps:) Mark me the brainliest:)!!

3 0

3 years ago

Put together, Albert and Jason have

Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to subtract 110 by 42 then when you have that number you divide it by two. then you add 42 to one of the twin numbers. That will be how many jason has, and albert will have the other number you kept the same.

7 0

3 years ago

21. Paul has $900 to invest in a savings account that has an annual interest rate of 1.8%, and a money market account that pays

Iteru [2.4K]

The polynomial that gives the interest earned after a year will have variables, exponents and constants that are joined by operators.

The interest earned after one year is 0.018·x

Reasons:

The amount Paul has to invest = $900

The annual interest rate from the savings account = 1.8%

The amount the money market account pays per year = 4.2 %

Required: The polynomial for the interest Paul earned by investing x dollars in the savings account.

Solution:

The interest earned is found using the compound interest formula as follows;

$\displaystyle A = \mathbf{P \cdot \left(1 + \frac{r}{n} \right)^{n \cdot t}}$

Where;

A = The amount in the account after one year

P = The original amount invested = x

r = The interest rate offered on the investment = 1.8% = 0.018

t = The time of the investment = 1 year

n = The number of times of application of the interest per period = Once per year

Which gives;

Interest = Amount earned = A - P

Therefore;

$\displaystyle Interest, \ I = \mathbf{P \cdot \left(1 + \frac{r}{n} \right)^{n \cdot t} - P}$

Plugging in the values gives;

$\displaystyle I = x \cdot \left(1 + \frac{0.018}{1} \right)^{1 \times 1} - x = x \cdot 1.018^1 - x = 1.018 \cdot x - x = 0.018 \cdot x$

The polynomial equation is therefore;

Interest, I = 0.018·x

Using the simple interest formula, we have;

$\displaystyle Interest = \mathbf{\frac{P \times r \times t}{100}}$

Which gives;

$\displaystyle Interest = \frac{x \times 1.8 \times 1}{100} = 0.018 \cdot x$

Interest earned by investing in the savings account for one year, I = 0.018·x

The polynomial representing the interest earned is I = 0.018·x

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/11314161

4 0

2 years ago

Two ships depart from a port at the same time, one heading south and the other east. Seven hours later, they are separated by a

Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer: 80 miles for the first ship, and 150 miles for the other.

Explanation:

First thing we should do is correspond each number with a letter:

Let x be the distance travel by ship heading east

Let y be the distance travel by ship heading south

y = x + 70 -- (1)

sqrt(x^2 + y^2) = 170 -- (2)

Subtract (1) into (2):

sqrt(x^2 + (x + 70)^2) = 170

x^2 + x^2 + 140x + 4900 = 28900

2x^2 + 140x - 24000 = 0

x ^2 + 70x - 12000 = 0

(x - 80)(x + 150) = 0

x = 80 or -150

Since the distance for the first ship can’t be negative, therefore, x = 80 -- (3)

Subtract (3) into (1), therefore, y = 150

Hope this helps! :)

7 0

3 years ago

Weird question but, whenever you divide by 1/4 or multiply by 4/1, will you always get the same answer.

professor190 [17]

Answer:

yep

Step-by-step explanation:

when you divide a fraction u can use the KCF method which is basically:

(keep) the first fraction the same

(change) the division sign in the middle to a multiplication sign

(flip) the second fraction

basically because you have to flip the 1/4 when you divide it, it'll be the same as a 4/1 anyways

8 0

3 years ago