Answer:
You too you are a other one
Explanation:
Like thwerc doesn’t know that you know all the hackers snadbhtsb d dis now stop playing g with me by h
For this problem, the bank is liable for the loss of $2,500. It should not have paid check #543. Moreover, the bank is obligatory to honor the written stop-payment order made by Mark for six months. Therefore, Mark does not have the share of liability in this case.
Answer:
$5,220
Explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense for the period end adjustment is shown below:
= Allowance of bad debts + credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
where,
Allowance of bad debts = 2% × $249,000 = $4,980
And, the credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $240
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $4,980 + $240
= $5,220
The journal entry is shown below:
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $5,220
To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,220
(Being bad debt is recorded)
Answer:
Could be the first and the last, if you are to choose more than one. If only one, I would choose the last one.
Explanation:
Answer:
Pam and Jon's dividend income = $80,000 each
[ ($100000 <em>Accumulated E&P </em>+ <em>$60000 current E&P </em>) / 2] = $80,000
Statement of distribution for shareholders for tax purpose
Pam Jon
Total distribution $100,000 $100,000
Less: Dividend income <u>$80,000 $80,000</u>
$20,000 $20,000
Less: Stock basis <u>$11,000 $26,000</u>
Capital gain <u>$9,000 $0
</u>
<u>
</u>
Therefore, Pam has a taxable gain of $9000 which reduces the stock basis to $0, whereas Jon has not any taxable gain but the stock basis has reduced to $6000 [$26000 - $20000]