Social disorder, perfectionist, just remembering physiology. ..
Answer:
Please see the explanation of the process
Explanation:
In the integrated cash receipt system in which customers makes the payments on account of the physical check that are mailed to the company.
The mail room clerk open the envelops containing the checks and remittance advices and endorse the checks for deposit only.Then the clerk reconcile the checks and remittances advices and prepare the remittance list. The checks, remittance advices and a copy of remittance list sent to the cash receipt department
.
The cash receipt clerk reconciles the checks and remittances advice with remittance list and prepares the deposit slips. Via terminal, the clerk accesses the cash receipt system and creates a record in the remittance file (cash receipt journal) for each remittance advice received. The clerk files the remittance list, remittance advices and one copy of the deposit slips. At the end of the day,a member of the security group deposits the checks in the bank
.
Answer:
b. There is no general rule for when an account becomes uncollectible.
Explanation:
Accounts uncollectible are the debts and loans which do not have any chance of being paid. There are many other reasons by which the account becomes uncollectible. The inability of the debtor, the bankruptcy of the debtor and the fraud conducted by the debtor are some of the reasons why accounts become uncollectible.
A risk premium is a measure calculated to reflect the riskiness of future profits. is The metric denotes the difference between the expected return on a market portfolio and the risk-free rate. The value of a firm is larger the lower is the risk premium used to compute the firm's value.
Answer:
the company should buy and install the press because the NPV of the project is positive ($73,133.75)
Explanation:
the MACRS 5 year depreciation:
- $375,000 x 20% = $75,000
- $375,000 x 32% = $120,000
- $375,000 x 19.2% = $72,000
- $375,000 x 11.52% = $43,200
- $19,800, since salvage value at year 5 is $45,000
- $0 x 5.76% = $0
salvage value $45,000
total initial investment = $375,000, discount rate = 11%
- cash flow year 1 = {($142,000 - $15,000 - $75,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $75,000 = $109,320
- cash flow year 2 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $120,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $120,000 = $133,200
- cash flow year 3 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $72,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $72,000 = $116,880
- cash flow year 4 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $43,200) x (1 - 34%)} + $43,200 = $107,088
- cash flow year 5 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $19,800) x (1 - 34%)} + $19,800 + $45,000 = $144,132
the NPV of the project = -$375,000 + $109,320/1.11 + $133,200/1.11² + $116,880/1.11³ + $107,088/1.11⁴ + $144,132/1.11⁵ = $73,133.75
