Answer:
Our answer is 0.8172
Step-by-step explanation:
P(doubles on a single roll of pair of dice) =(6/36) =1/6
therefore P(in 3 rolls of pair of dice at least one doubles)=1-P(none of roll shows a double)
=1-(1-1/6)3 =91/216
for 12 players this follows binomial distribution with parameter n=12 and p=91/216
probability that at least 4 of the players will get “doubles” at least once =P(X>=4)
=1-(P(X<=3)
=1-((₁₂ C0)×(91/216)⁰(125/216)¹²+(₁₂ C1)×(91/216)¹(125/216)¹¹+(₁₂ C2)×(91/216)²(125/216)¹⁰+(₁₂ C3)×(91/216)³(125/216)⁹)
=1-0.1828
=0.8172
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The LCM of 14, 21 and 6 is 42
We require to change the fractions to fractions with a denominator of 42
+ 
+ 
= 
+ 
+ 
← add the numerators, leaving the denominator
= 
= 
← divide both values by 2
= ← in simplest form
So sig figs are non zero so
500 has 1 sig fig, 5
but 500. has 3 sig figs because it has a decimal
2.3 has 2 sig figs
2.03 has 3 sig figs so to make 232.76 to 2 sig figs you would put it into scientific notation and get 2.3 times 10^2 and thats 2 sig figs (the 10^2 doesn't count as a sig fig)
Answer:
Y=3
Step-by-step explanation:
You go over to the X axis, find -2 and go up the line vertically until you touch the black line going across. You look to the right and see it says 3. So 3 is your answer
Yes it is
it’s the 41st term
EXPLANATION:
the nth term would be 15n+35
because the terms go up by 15 and you add 35 to get to the term.
1. 2. 3. 4.
50. 65. 80. 95
1000- 35= 965
965/15=41
