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Leviafan [203]
3 years ago
13

At the beginning of the month, the baking department of Mario Company had no beginning work in process inventory. At the end of

the month, 800 units that were 75% complete with respect to materials were in the in the ending work in process inventory of its baking department. During the month, 1,200 units were completed and transferred to Finished Goods. Assuming that the weighted-average method is used, the equivalent units in the ending work in process inventory with respect to materials of the baking department equal:_______.
Business
1 answer:
Phantasy [73]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

600 Units

Explanation:

Given:

Opening balance of inventory = 0 units

Ending balance of the month = 800 units

Finished units during the month = 1,200 units

Completed work in progress = 75% = 0.75

Ending work in process inventory = ?

Computation of ending work in process inventory:

Ending work in process inventory = Ending balance of the month × Completed work in progress

= 800 × 0.75

= 600 units

You might be interested in
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
10. Calculate the future value of $2000 in a. 5 years at an interest rate of 5% per year. b. 10 years at an interest rate of 5%
timofeeve [1]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

Given that,

Principal = P = $2000

As we know that

Future value (FV) = P × (1 + R)^n

here,

R = Rate of interest,

N = no of years

Now

A) N = 5, R = 5% = 0.05

FV = $2,000 × (1.05)^5

= $2,553

The Interest earned is

= $2,553 - $2,000

= $553

B) N = 10, R = 5% = 0.05

FV = $2,000 × (1.05)^10

= $3,258

The Interest earned is

= $3,258 - $2,000

= $1,258

C) N = 5, R = 10% = 0.10

FV = $2,000 × (1.10)^5

= $3,221

D) Option A

As in the part B the time period is 10 years as compared with the part A i.e. 5 years having the interest rate same

Also the cumulative interest would be greather than double as compared with part A

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that borrowing is restricted so that the zero-beta version of the CAPM holds. The expected return on the market portfoli
Delvig [45]

Answer:

10.5%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

where,

Risk free rate of return = 7%

Market rate of return = 14%

And, the beta is 0.5

So the expected return is

= 7% + 0.5 × (14% - 7%)

= 7% + 0.5 × 7%

= 7% + 3.5%

= 10.5%

4 0
3 years ago
2. What were the major industries involved in the development of the West, and how did these industries transform the western ec
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

1) Mining

2) Ranching

3) Commercial Farming

Explanation:

The miners who comes mostly from California and other areas fulfilled the demand for gold and silver in the East. They also contributed in extracting other minerals i.e. copper, zinc, iron ore, lead, and quartz, which were great for the industrial use.

The sheep and cattle ranchers played an important role too i.e. that they produced wool, meat, and leather to satisfy the demands of eastern manufacturers and the consumers.

The farmers contributed by making farming commercial. They sold their crops in home town and internationally which helped the economy to improve.  

6 0
3 years ago
Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
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