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sashaice [31]
3 years ago
8

Compute the variances in dollar amount and in percentage. (Round to the nearest whole percent.) Indicate whether the variance is

favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). Budgeted Income Amount $500.00 Actual Amount $400.00
Dollar Variance $
Percent Variance %
F or U
Business
1 answer:
Basile [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Dollar Variance is -$100

Percent Variance is -20%

Since the actual amount received is less than the budgeted amount, the variance is unfavorable (U).

We calculate Dollar Variance as Actual Income - Budgeted Income.

Dollar Variance = 400 - 500 = -100

Next calculate percent variance as \frac{Dollar Variance}{Budgeted Income}*100

Percent Variance = \frac{-100}{500} * 100 = -0.20*100

Percentage Variance = -20%.

You might be interested in
Billings Company has the following information available for September 2017.
kumpel [21]

Answer:

Part a

Contribution Margin = 29.95% (2 d.p)

Part b

                             Billing Company

                 CVP Income for as at September 2017

                                                      Total                      Per Unit

                                                         $                               $

Sales                                          295704                       444

Less Variable Costs                  (138084)                      (311)

Contribution                               157620                        133

Fixed Costs                                 (59850)                     89.86

Net Income                                  97770                       43.14

Part c

Billing`s break even point is 450 units

Part d

                                    Billing Company

     CVP Income for as at September 2017 - Break Even Point

                                                      Total                      Per Unit

                                                         $                               $

Sales                                           199800                       444

Less Variable Costs                  (139950)                      (311)

Contribution                                59850                        133

Fixed Costs                                 (59850)                      133

Net Income                                       0                              0

Explanation:

Part a

Contribution Margin = Contribution/Sales × 100

Therefore contribution margin is  ($444-$311)/$444 * 100 = 29.95% (2 d.p)

Part b

Sales - Variable Cost = Contribution

Net Income  =   Contribution - Total Fixed Costs                            

Part c

Break Even Point is when Billings neither makers a profit or loss.

Break Even Point ( Units) = Total Fixed Cost/Contribution per unit

Therefore Break Even Point (Units) = $59850/$133 = 450 units

Part d

The total and unit CVP should neither reflect a profit or loss at a capacity of 450 units as this is the break even point. In this case profit = nill

7 0
3 years ago
Peter Parker, CEO at Spdey Enterprises, finds his profits at $8,000,000 inadequate for his Web-Slinger business. His production
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

Spdey Enterprises

The percentage improvement in Sales to achieve the desired profit is:

c. 42.86% increase in sales.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Normal profit level = $8 million

Expected profit level = $14 million

                                             Normal            Expected

Sales per year              $40,000,000          $57,142,857

Cost of purchases          16,000,000            22,857,143

Production costs            10,000,000             14,285,714

Variable costs               26,000,000            37,142,857

Total contribution        $14,000,000       $20,000,000

Fixed costs                      6,000,000           6,000,000

Profit level                     $8,000,000        $14,000,000

Expected Contribution = Expected profit level + Fixed Costs

Normal Contribution = 35% of Sales

Normal Variable costs = 65% (100% - 35%)

Expected Contribution = $20,000,000 = 35% of Sales

Therefore, Expected Sales = $57,142,857 ($20,000,000/35%)

Normal Sales = $40,000,000

Expected Sales = $57,142,857

Percentage increase = 42.86% ($57,142,857 - $40,000,000)/$40,000,000

4 0
3 years ago
An economy's resources: are always fully employed. can always be over-utilized. can be over-utilized, but only temporarily. can
irakobra [83]

Answer:

The correct answer is could be over- utilized, but for temporarily

Explanation:

Economy resources are those resources or the factors which are used while producing the goods and the services. It could be divided or classified among  human resource like management and labor and the non- human resources like technology, land and capital goods.

So, the economy resources could be over- utilized, but for temporarily through adding the shifts as well as running the equipment for longer but the machines could break down and the labor tires, therefore the over utilization cannot be sustained.

7 0
3 years ago
When the aggregate supply curve is vertical, which of the following is not true? Group of answer choices The economy is producin
Anni [7]

Answer:

The economy is expanding quickly.

Explanation:

Aggregate supply is a measure of the total supply of goods and services made available by the supplier in an economy.

The normal aggregate supply curve is one with a positive slope. That is as price increases there is an increase in aggregate supply, and when price reduces aggregate supply also reduces.

However when aggregate supply curve is vertical, only one level of output is produced no matter the rise or fall of price.

This indicates that the economy is producing at capacity, and any increase in price will not result in increase in output.

It does not mean that the economy is expanding quickly.

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you want to create a "college fund" for your newborn child and place $300 in a bank account at the end of each of t
Sever21 [200]

Answer:

Amount at the end of twentieth year is $12,300

Explanation:

Annuity means a set of fixed amount of payments either made to you or paid by you , at a fixed number of times over a course of defined period.

The case given in the question is of ordinary annuity , where fixed amount of payment are required at the end of each period.

FORMULA FOR FUTURE VALUE ORDINARY ANNUITY =

               

Where, C(cash flow) = $300,

            I(interest rate) = 7%

           N(number of period) = 20

           FV ( Future value)

FUTURE\ VALUE(FV)\ OF\ ORDINARY\ ANNUITY= CASH\ FLOW(C)\times \left [ \frac{1+I^{N}-1}{I} \right ])

FUTURE\ VALUE(FV)\ OF\ ORDINARY\ ANNUITY= \$300\times \left [ \frac{1+7\%^{20}-1}{7\%} \right ])

FUTURE\ VALUE(FV)\ OF\ ORDINARY\ ANNUITY= \$300\times \left [ \frac{\ 1.07\ ^{20}-1}{7\%} \right ])

FUTURE\ VALUE(FV)\ OF\ ORDINARY\ ANNUITY= \$300\times \left [ \frac{\ 3.87\ -1}{7\%} \right ])

FUTURE\ VALUE(FV)\ OF\ ORDINARY\ ANNUITY= \$300\times \left [ \frac{\ 2.87}{7\%} \right ])

= 861/7%

= $12,300

8 0
3 years ago
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