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Eddi Din [679]
3 years ago
10

In many​ countries, people hold money as a cushion against unexpected needs arising from a variety of potential scenarios​ (e.g.

, banking​ crises, natural​ disasters, health​ problems, unemployment,​ etc.) that are not usually covered by insurance markets. Explain the effect of such a behavior on the precautionary component of the demand for money.
Business
1 answer:
RoseWind [281]3 years ago
7 0

Explanation:

precautionary demand for money is classified as money that are held to cover for unforeseen occurrence e.g, an accident or illness.

It should also be noted that:  The amount of money held for such purposes is broadly dependent on the level of income and expenditure.

With more income the precautionary demand will increase because there are more likely to be surprises in the timing or magnitude of the correspondingly high expenditures

A higher rate of interest represents a higher opportunity cost of holding money for any reason, including the precautionary reason, and so leads to lower precautionary holdings.

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The following data are for the Akron Division of Consolidated Rubber, Inc.: Sales $ 820,000 Net operating income $ 59,000 Averag
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

11.56%

Explanation:

The computation of the minimum required rate of return is shown below:

Residual income = Net operating income - (Average operating assets × minimum required rate of return)

$22,000 = $59,000 - ($320,000 × minimum required rate of return)

After solving this the minimum required rate of return is 11.56%

By applying the above formula we can find out the minimum required rate of return

7 0
3 years ago
A $150,000 loan is to be amortized over 7 years, with annual end-of-year payments. Which of these statements is CORRECT? a. The
Schach [20]

Answer:

The proportion of each payment that represents interest versus repayment of principal would be higher if the interest rate were higher

Explanation:

Amount of interest component in a loan instalment will be higher as compared with principal amount in the initial period of repayment . As period lapses , interest amount reduces progressively and principal amount increases . When the tenure of loan is increased , proportion  of interest increases in an instalment .

3 0
3 years ago
A year ago, Jasper Inc. sold 20-year bonds at par with a coupon rate of 4.5 percent and semiannual payments. The face value of e
scoray [572]

Answer:

= $877.32

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).</em>

<em>Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV</em>

The value of bond for Jasper Inc can be worked out as follows:

Step 1

<em>PV of interest payments</em>

<em>Semi annul interest paymen</em>t

= 4.5% × 1000 × 1/2

= 22.5

<em>Semi-annual yield</em> = 5.6/2 = 2.8% per six months

<em>Total period to maturity (in months)</em>

= (2 × 19) = 38 periods  <em> (Note it was sold a year ago)</em>

<em>PV of interest = </em>

<em> </em>22.5 × (1- (1+0.028)^(-38)/0.028)

= 22.5 ×23.20871226

= 522.196

Step 2

<em>PV of Redemption Value</em>

= 1,000 × (1.056)^(-19)

= 355.128

<em>Price of bond</em>

=  522.19 + 355.12

= $877.32

<em />

                               

5 0
3 years ago
Street Company's fixed expenses total $150,000, its variable expense ratio is 60% and its variable expenses are $4.50 per unit.
Len [333]

Answer:

Break even in units = 50000 units

Explanation:

Break even point is a point where total revenues equal total cost and the firm makes no profit or no loss. Break even point in units is the number of units that must be sold in order for the firm to break even. The formula to calculate break even in units is,

Break even in units = Fixed costs / Contribution margin per unit

Where,

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit

First we will calculate the contribution margin per unit.

A variable cost ratio of 60% means that variable costs are 60% of selling price. This means that the remaining 40% is contribution margin per unit.

Now if the variable cost is 4.5 per unit which are 60% of selling price, the the selling price per unit will be,

4.5 = 0.6 / Selling price

Selling price = 4.5 / 0.6

Selling price = 7.5 per unit

Contribution margin per unit = 7.5 - 4.5 = 3 per unit

Break even in units = 150000 / 3

Break even in units = 50000 units

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that General Motors Acceptance Corporation issued a bond with 10 years until maturity, a face value of $1000, and a coup
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

Ans. The price of the bond immediately after it makes its first coupon payment is $1,068.02

Explanation:

Hi, we have to bring to present value the remaining cash flows, that is 9 coupons and its face value, so we need to use the following equation.

Price=\frac{Coupon((1+YTM)^{n}-1) }{YTM(1+YTM)^{n} } +\frac{FaceValue}{(1+YTM)^{n} }

Where:

Coupon = 0.07*$1,000=$70

YTM = Yield to maturity, in our case 6% or 0.06

n = 9 (since the bond is paying every year and there are 9 years left until maturity)

Face Value= $1,000.

Everything should look like this

Price=\frac{70((1+0.06)^{9}-1) }{0.06(1+0.06)^{9} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.06)^{9} }

Therefore:

Price=476.12+591.90=1,068.02

So, the price of this bond right after paying its first coupon is $1,068.02

Best of luck.

8 0
3 years ago
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