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Komok [63]
4 years ago
10

For purposes of computing the WACC, if the book value of equity exceeds the market value of equity, then: the market value of eq

uity should be used. the book value of equity should be used. the market value of equity less retained earnings should be used. the book value of equity less retained earnings should be used.
Business
2 answers:
vagabundo [1.1K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The market value of equity should be used.

Explanation:

Their are only two methods which are book value method or market value method. The market value method is preferred because the reason is that the market value gives the more accurate numerical value that the securities of the company will give which is the required rate of return to its investors. However historic cost data is not useful because the value of stock and bonds keeps changing every second in the stock exchange and their is the risk that the WACC calculated is inaccurate which implies that the project appraised is also incorrect.

So the best way to calculate the weighted cost of capital is that we should use the fair value of the securities.

poizon [28]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

For purposes of computing the WACC, if the book value of equity exceeds the market value of equity, then the book value of equity less retained earnings should be used.

Explanation:

Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the average rate a company expects to pay to finance its assets.

It is a calculation of a firm's cost of capital in which each category of capital is proportionately weighted

WACC is calculated by multiplying the cost of each capital source (debt and equity) by its relevant weight, and then adding the products together to determine the value.

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Which of the following statements about the segment margin is not true? In preparing a segmented income statement, the variable
Trava [24]

Answer: The segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin

Explanation:

Segment margin is referred to the net profit or the net loss that a particular segment of a business makes. Segment margin is used to know segments that are performing well.

It is also used to know the long-run profitability of a particular segment as it shows the margin that is available after the cost has been covered by a segment.

Based on the above illustration, the statement that isn't true will be "the segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin".

This is false as segment margin is gotten after the traceable fixed costs of a segment has been subtracted from the contribution margin of that particular segment.

8 0
3 years ago
Basic bond valuation Complex Systems has an outstanding issue of ​$1 comma 000​-par-value bonds with a 16​% coupon interest rate
salantis [7]

Answer:

a. Complex Systems' bond price​ today = $1,476.36

Explanation:

a. If bonds of similar risk are currently earning a rate of return of 9​%, how much should the Complex Systems bond sell for​ today?

This can be calculated by adding the Present Value of Coupons and the Present Value of Par Value as follows:

<u>Calculation of Present Value of Coupons</u>

The present of coupons is calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Present value of coupons = C × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1 + r)]^n} ÷ r] …………………………………. (1)

Where;

C = Annual coupon amount = Par value * Coupon rate = $1,000 * 16% = $160

r = required rate of return or return of similar risk = 9%, or 0.09

n = number of years = 11

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

Present value of coupons = $160 × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1 + 0.09)]^11} ÷ 0.09] = $1,088.83

<u>Calculation of Present Par of Value</u>

To calculate this, we use the present value formula as follows:

Present Value of Par Value = Par value / (1 + r)^n

Since Par Value is $1000 and r and n are as already given above, we have:

Present value of Par Value = $1,000 / (1 + 0.09)^11 = $387.53

Therefore, we have:

Complex Systems' bond price​ today = Present value of coupons + Present value of Par Value = $1,088.83 + $387.53 = $1,476.36

b. Describe the two possible reasons why the rate on​ similar-risk bonds is below the coupon interest rate on the Complex Systems bond.

The following are the possible two reasons:

1. Interest may vary bust the coupon is fixed. What can cause the interest rate to vary is the bond rating by rating agency. But his will not affect the coupon rate which is fixed. When the rating is high, the interest will be low. But when the rating is low, the interest will be high. This indicates a negative relationship between the rating and the interest rate.

2. The level of demand may also influence the interest rate to change. When the demand is high, the interest will be low. But when the demand is low, the interest will be high. This also indicates a negative relationship between the demand and the interest rate.

c. If the required return were at 16​% instead of 9​%, what would the current value of Complex​ Systems' bond​ be? Contrast this finding with your findings in part a and discuss.

To do this, we simply change he required return to 16% (or 0.16) in part a and proceed as follows:

Present value of coupons at 16% = $160 × [{1 - [1 ÷ (1 + 0.16)]^11} ÷ 0.016] = $804.58

Present value of Par Value at 16% = $1,000 / (1 + 0.16)^11 = $195.42

Complex Systems' bond price​ today at 16% = $804.58 + $195.42 = $1,000.00

Comparing part c result with part a result shows that if the coupon rate is greater than the required rate of return, the bond is sold at a premium. That is, price of bond will be more than par. As it can be seen in part a, the price of bond is $1,476.36 when the coupon rate of 16% is greater than the required return of 9%.

Also, the bond will be sold at par when the coupon rate and require return are equal. This is shown in part c where the bond is sold at $1,000 when both coupon rate and required return rate are equal to 16%.

By implication, we can also infer without doing any calculation that the bond will be sold at a discount if the coupon rate is less than the required rate of return.

7 0
4 years ago
Having some clients who are less knowledgeable about investing and seem to be more trusting of their firm, the management of a f
xxMikexx [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is b) a Ponzi scheme.

Explanation:

The Ponzi Scheme is a fraudulent investment operation that involves paying investors interest obtained from the money of new investors (and not from the generation of genuine profits). It is a pyramidal system, in which the only way to share benefits requires that participants recommend and capture (refer) to more clients with the objective that new participants produce benefits to primary participants.

This system does not invest in financial or other instruments, it only redistributes money from some investors to others, so the system works only if the number of investors in the pyramid continually grows; once people stop entering the "business", the scammer is prevented from fulfilling his promise and the pyramid collapses

7 0
3 years ago
Difference between bench trial and jury trial
dybincka [34]
Bench trial is when you pay for the consequences and jury trial is when your speaking of the situation and they would have to choose a consequence 
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A country reported nominal GDP of $115 billion in 2010 and $125 billion in 2009. It also reported a GDP deflator of 85 in 2010 a
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

<h2>In this case,the correct answer is option b. or real output rose and price level fell.</h2>

Explanation:

GDP Deflator in Macroeconomics,shows the inflation or deflation rate in a country within the specific time period.Hence,it measures the changes in the average price level of goods and services in any country or economy over a particular period of time.It is mathematically calculated by dividing the nominal GDP of the country or economy by its real GDP.Now,a decrease in the nominal GDP relative to the real GDP or GDP deflator implies an deflationary impact or an increase in the average price level of goods and services in the economy and vise versa.Note that in this case both the nominal GDP and GDP deflator decreased from 2009 to 2010 which advocates that the price level in the economy fell(deflation) and the real output or GDP rose or increased due to deflationary impacts as reflected by the decline in GDP deflator.

5 0
3 years ago
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