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max2010maxim [7]
3 years ago
7

I don’t get any of these :/// please help

Mathematics
1 answer:
Natasha2012 [34]3 years ago
3 0

1) From the total of 17 marbles, Jacob takes 2 out at random. There are

\dbinom{17}2=C(17,2)=C^{17}_2=\dfrac{P(17,2)}{2!}=\dfrac{P^{17}_2}{2!}=\dfrac{17!}{2!(17-2)!}=136

possible outcomes of the draw. (Lots of different notations are used for the binomial coefficient; the first one is my preference.) The number of ways to draw exactly 2 orange marbles is

\dbinom70\dbinom{10}2=1\cdot1\cdot45=45

That is, of the 3 red and 4 blue marbles - or the 7 non-orange marbles - we want 0; of the 10 oranges, we want 2.

So the probability of drawing exactly 2 orange marbles is \dfrac{45}{136}\approx0.33.

2) Now Jacob draws 3 marbles, for which there are

\dbinom{17}3=680

possible combinations. The event that Jacob draws at least 1 orange marble is complementary to the event that Jacob draws 0 orange marbles. So if we find the probabilty of drawing 0 oranges, then we subtract this from 1 to find the probability of drawing at least 1.

There are

\dbinom73\dbinom{10}0=35\cdot1=35

possible ways of doing, so the probability of drawing 0 oranges is \dfrac{35}{680}, in turn making the probability of drawing at least 1, 1-\dfrac{35}{680}=\dfrac{645}{680}\approx0.95.

3) This question is kinda ambiguous. It's not clear whether Jacob draws a marble with or without replacement.

If he does return a drawn marble to the bag, then for each draw, there is a \dfrac{10}{17} probability that he draws an orange marble, and a \dfrac7{17} probability of not. The draws are presumably independent of one another, so that the probability of drawing the first orange marble on the fourth attempt would be

\dfrac7{17}\cdot\dfrac7{17}\cdot\dfrac7{17}\cdot\dfrac{10}{17}=\dfrac{3430}{83521}\approx0.041

If no replacements are made, then as non-orange marbles are drawn from the bag, the number of non-oranges and the total number of marbles both decrease by 1. Then the probability of drawing orange on the fourth draw would be

\dfrac{\dbinom71\dbinom61\dbinom51\dbinom{10}1}{\dbinom{17}1\dbinom{16}1\dbinom{15}1\dbinom{14}1}=\dfrac5{136}\approx0.037

If you're supposed to round to the nearest hundredths place, your final answer should be acceptable either way.

4) We want the probability that a boat is made of wood given that it has chrome accents:

P(\text{wood}\mid\text{chrome})=\dfrac{P(\text{wood AND chrome})}{P(\text{chrome})}=\dfrac{70\%}{75\%}\approx93\%

5) We apply the inclusion/exclusion principle:

P(\text{wood OR chrome})=P(\text{wood})+P(\text{chrome})-P(\text{wood AND chrome})

P(\text{wood OR chrome})=90\%+75\%-70\%=95\%

6) The events of a boat having chrome accents and a boat being made of wood are independent if and only if

P(\text{wood AND chrome})=P(\text{wood})\cdot P(\text{chrome)}

But 90\%\cdot75\%=67.5\%\neq70\%, so these two events are not independent.

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