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Alexus [3.1K]
3 years ago
7

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4^x

Mathematics
1 answer:
AVprozaik [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = log \:  {4}^{x}  \\  \\ plug \: x = 0 \\  \\ f(0) = log \:  {4}^{0} \\  \\ f(0) = log \:  1 \: ( \because \: {n}^{0} = 1) \\  \\ f(0) = 0 \: ( \because \: log \: 1 = 0)

Hence, f(x) = log4^x

does not have a y-intercept.

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