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Arisa [49]
3 years ago
7

You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They’ve offered you two different salary arrangement

s. You can have $69,000 per year for the next two years, or you can have $58,000 per year for the next two years, along with a $14,000 signing bonus today. The bonus is paid immediately, and the salary is paid in equal amounts at the end of each month.If the interest rate is 9 percent compounded monthly, what is the PV for both the options?
Business
1 answer:
Elina [12.6K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Option 1 has the higher Present Value

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

You can have $69,000 per year for the next two years, or you can have $58,000 per year for the next two years, along with a $14,000 signing bonus today.  The interest rate is 9%.

Effective rate= 0.09/12= 0.0075

Option 1:

Monthly salary= 69000/12= 5750

n= 24

i=0.0075

First, we calculate the final value:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n)-1]}/i

FV= {5750*[(1.0075^24)-1]/0.0075= 150,583.7059

Now, we can calculate the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 150,583.7059/(1´0075^24)= 125,862.59

Option 2:

Monthly salary= 58000/12= 4833.33

n= 24

i=0.0075

FV= {4833.33*[(1.0075^24)-1]}/0-0075= 126,577.52

PV= [126,577.52/(1.0075^24)] + 14000= 119,797.50

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A corporation has outstanding $5,000,000 of 9 1/2% 20-year debentures, with a conversion price of $40. If all the debentures wer
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer:

The 125,000 shares of common stock would be issued

Explanation:

For computing how many shares of common stock would be issued, we have to use the formula of common share produced which is shown below:

Common share produced = Par value ÷ Conversion price

where,

Par value is $5,000,000

And, the conversion is $40

Now, apply these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equals to

= $5,000,000 ÷ $40

= 125,000

The time period and rate of debentures is irrelevant, Thus, it is ignored.

Hence, the 125,000 shares of common stock would be issued.

8 0
3 years ago
A dollar in hand today is worth_______(less than/more than/equivalent) a dollar to be received in the future because if you had
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

more than

earn interest

discount cash flow (DCF)

Explanation:

The concept of future value represents the amount that a lump sum or series of cash flows will achieve after a given period when compounded at an interest rate. This means that a dollar in hand today is worth more than a dollar to be received since it can be applied to earn interest.

The time value of money, which allows us to evaluate different investments, is also known as discount cash flow (DCF).

3 0
3 years ago
Statutes of limitations Group of answer choices define how much money the injured party can sue for under a breach of contract c
AysviL [449]
<h3>limit the time in which an injured party may sue. only apply to the sale of goods. </h3><h3 />

The length of time allowed under a statute of limitations varies depending upon the severity of the offense as well as the jurisdiction it is being disputed.

<h3>What is Statue of Limitations ?</h3>

A statute of limitations is a law that sets the maximum amount of time that parties involved in a dispute have to initiate legal proceedings from the date of an alleged offense, whether civil or criminal.

  • Cases involving severe crimes, like murder, typically have no maximum period.

Learn more about Statue of Limitations here:

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5 0
2 years ago
Egrane, Inc.'s monthly bank statement showed the ending balance of cash of $19,200. The bank reconciliation for the period showe
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

the cash balance is $17,615

Explanation:

The computation of the cash balance before the adjustment is shown below:

= Ending cash balance + deposit in transit - oustanding checks + NSF + bank service charges - payment

= $19,200 + $1,850 - $2,700 + $1,400 + $65 - $2,200

= $17,615

hence, the cash balance is $17,615

8 0
2 years ago
SIROM Scientific Solutions has $12 million of outstanding equity and $4 million of bank debt. The bank debt costs 4% per year. T
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

WACC = 9.7%

Explanation:

First lets calculate CAPM to identify the return on equity.

CAPM = Risk free rate + Beta(Market Premium)

CAPM = 4 + 1(8) = 12%

WACC

= weight of equity * return on equity + weight of debt * return on debt * (1 - tax)

This gives,

=(12/12+4) * 0.12 + [(4/12+4) * 0.04 * (1 - 0.30)]

WACC = 0.09 + 0.007 = 9.7%

Hope that helps.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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