Answer:
17p
Step-by-step explanation:
Since you don't know how much Sanjay picked you can only explain as a variable. So just put 17 next to p which is 17*p
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
a1 = 6
a2 = 10
a3 = 14
The next member of the sequence is 4 more than the current sequence. Therefore d = 4
a1 = 6
d = 4
n = 13
an = a1 + (n - 1)*d
an = 6 + (n - 1)*4
a_13 = 6 + 12*4
a_13 = 6 + 48
a_13 = 54
Answer:

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:


And replacing we got:

Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Solution to the problem
For this case we want this probability:

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:


And replacing we got:

Answer:
x = 5
Step-by-step explanation:
Your answer is incorrect. You forgot to get the square root of 25 and 4. Answer should be 16√2
we can only subtract radicals that are the same. At first glance, 4√50 - 2√8 are not the same, so they are not likely to be subtracted. However, each radical can still be simplified.
4 √50 = 4 √25 * 2 = 4 * 5 √2 = 20 √2
2 √8 = 2 √4 * 2 = 2 * 2 √2 = 4 √2
Now that the radicals are the same. then you can subtract the numbers.
20 √2 - 4 √2 = 16√2