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Blababa [14]
3 years ago
7

A 35 year-old man presents with a testicular mass. Beta-HCG and Alpha-Feto Protein blood levels are normal. A radical orchiectom

y is performed. Grossly the mass is tan-white and nodular without hemorrhage. Microscopically it is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm, visible cell membrane, fibrous septa and lymphocytes. What is your diagnosis?
Biology
1 answer:
makvit [3.9K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Classic seminoma

Explanation:

The classic seminoma can be defined as the germ cell tumor of the testicles or mediastinum. It is a type of malignant neoplasm and is treated and curable stage of the cancer.

It has a survival rate of more than 95 % if it is detected during the early stages of diagnosis.

It originates in the germinal epithelium of the semniferous tubules. In this case the fertility of the person is not affected and sexual function also remains intact.

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Answer:

  1. <u>The hours are the independent variable.</u>
  2. <u>The wages/wk earned are ( $11/hr )x( hrs worked ) . This is the dependent variable ( depends on hours worked ) .</u>
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Explanation:

<em>The hours are the independent variable and  should be plotted on the x-axis .</em>

<em>The wages/wk earned are ( $11/hr )x( hrs worked ) . This is the dependent variable ( depends on hours worked )  and should be plotted on the y-axis </em>

<em>--------------- </em>

<em>Let +W+ = wages/wk earned </em>

<em></em>

<em>Let +h+ = hours/wk worked </em>

<em>The equation is: </em>

<em>+W+=+11h+ </em>

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<em>The range is 0 to 330 </em>

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