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skad [1K]
3 years ago
11

Solve using any method. Choose the correct ordered pair.

Mathematics
2 answers:
lesya692 [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

-2 + 7 = 5

Julli [10]3 years ago
7 0
The correct answer would be C because -2 +7 = 5
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labwork [276]
The answer would be 28 but couldnt you have done this yourself?

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
40x=10x^2+41 <br><br> Identify the number of solutions and their types using the discriminant
nydimaria [60]

Number of solutions: no roots

Type of solution: Not Real

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to identify the number of solutions and their types using the discriminant.

We are given: 40x=10x^2+41\\

Rearranging:

40x-10x^2-41=0\\10x^2-40x+41=0

Discriminant can be found by: b^2-4ac

where b=-40, a=10 and c=41

Putting values:

b^2-4ac\\=(-40)^2-4(10)(41)\\=1600-1640\\=-40\\

So, Discriminant is -40

If the discriminant is less than zero i.e -40 then there are no real roots.

So, Number of solutions: no roots

Type of solution: Not Real

Keywords: discriminant

Learn more about discriminant at:

  • brainly.com/question/8196933
  • brainly.com/question/9328925
  • brainly.com/question/9184197

#learnwithBrainly

6 0
3 years ago
The cost of health insurance is $1,200 per year. The cost of an operation for a dramatic injury is $500,000. The chances of some
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

yes. The cost of the insurance is less than the probability cost of the operation

Step-by-step explanation:

yes. The cost of the insurance is less than the probability cost of the operation

The cost of health insurance = $1200

Cost of dramatic injury operation= $500,000

chances of need of operation= 47.3% over a 20 years period

the amount of pay insurance after 20 years= 20\times 1200= 240,00

probable  of cost operation= 0.473*500,00= $236,500

clearly the cost of insurance is less than the probable  cost of operation.

5 0
3 years ago
If mc010-1.jp g and mc010-2.jp g, which expression could be used to verify that mc010-3.jp g is the inverse of mc010-4. ? mc010-
solmaris [256]

if indeed two functions are inverse of each other, then their composite will render a result of "x", namely, if g(x) is indeed an inverse of f(x), then

\bf (g\circ f)(x)=x\implies g(~~f(x)~~)=x \\\\\\ \begin{cases} f(x) = 3x\\ g(x)=\cfrac{1}{3}x \end{cases}\qquad \qquad g(~~f(x)~~)=\cfrac{1}{3}[f(x)]\implies g(~~f(x)~~)=\cfrac{1}{3}(3x)

5 0
3 years ago
I need answers as soon as possible please by
agasfer [191]

Answer:

Sorry need to do some thing else brb

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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