when manufacturing overhead has a credit balance, overhead is overapplied. Overapplied overhead means that the overhead assigned to work in process is greater than the overhead incurred. Also, since the amount is immaterial, it should be closed in cost of goods sold.
The adjusting entry for the overapplied over-head is:
b. debit factory overhead $5,600; credit cost of goods sold $5,600.
After posting this entry the factory overhead account will have a zero balance.
Hope it helps!
Answer:
a good decision requires that we recognize both viewpoints
Explanation:
Based on this information it can be said that an economist would most likely state that a good decision requires that we recognize both viewpoints. That is because every decision will affect everyone, but some individuals will be affected positively while others will be affected negatively. Therefore trying to recognize the viewpoint of both sides will allow for decisions that are as fair as possible to both sides.
Explanation:
The divisional structure is a type of organizational structure that groups each organizational function into a division. ... Each division contains all the necessary resources and functions within it to support that product line or geography (for example, its own finance, IT, and marketing departments)
Answer:
total budgeted costs = $141,570
budgeted production = 1,000 units
standard rate = $141,570 / 1,000 = $141.57 per unit
total actual costs = $135,810
actual production = 850 units
actual rate = $135,810 / 850 = $159.78 per unit
- total fixed overhead variance = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $135,810 - $141,570 = -$5,760 favorable. The actual overhead expense was lower than budgeted.
- controllable variance = (actual rate - standard rate) x actual units = ($159.78 - $141.57) x 850 units = $15,478.50 unfavorable. The actual overhead rate was higher than the standard rate, that is why the variance is unfavorable (more money was spent than budgeted).
- volume variance = (standard activity - actual activity) x standard rate = (1,000 - 850) x $141.57 = 150 x $141.57 = $21,235.50 unfavorable. Less units where produced than budgeted, that is why the variance is unfavorable.
Answer:
amount of interest due after 6 month is $1344
Explanation:
given data
borrowed P = $42,000
interest rate = 6.4% = 0.064
time period = 6 month = 0.5 year
solution
we get here interest amount on 6 month that is express as
interest = principal × rate × time ..........1
put her value and we get
interest = 42,000 × 0.064 × 0.5
interest = $1344
so amount of interest due after 6 month is $1344
