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alexdok [17]
3 years ago
13

Recently, 1 U.S. dollar was worth 1.58 in euros. If you exchanged $25 at that rate, how many euros would you get?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ad libitum [116K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer3

:

Step-by-step explanation:

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The ratio (by volume) of salt and sugar in a certain mixture is 4 to 8. If the total volume of the solution is 300 cubic feet, w
Tatiana [17]
You will use the ratio 4:8 to create a part to part to whole ratio.

First simplify 4:8 to 1:2, then make it 1:2:3 (Salt:Sugar:Total).

Use this to find the volume of sugar.  2 sugars for every 3 total would be equivalent to 200 cubic feet of sugar for every 300 total cubic feet.
8 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
Please help me thanks
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

If you multiply the square root of any number by the square root of the same number you get that number.

3 0
3 years ago
2 Points
elena55 [62]

Answer:C

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Who else is being stressed of school right now??
Norma-Jean [14]

Answer:

Finish your homework first (EVERYTHING) before videogames

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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