I believe it's A: capitalizing on the harsh post-war conditions in their countries.
<u>Original Question</u>: A government is laissez-faire when it?
<u>Answer: does not interfere with business affairs and does not regulate its actions</u>
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<em>Explanation: Laissez-faire is an economic term that economists use when describing an unregulated market</em>
<em>An unregulated market in being the fact that the government doesn't involve us in the business world.</em>
<em>Its benefit is that allows for substantial growth in the industry as businesses are not bound by rules and regulations could increase the cost and decrease their efficiency.</em>
<em>However it is unbeneficial when businesses began to set up 'monoplies' and 'set inadequate working standards' that harm other businesses and workers. That is when the government would step in to regulate the market and break the laissez-faire terms on how to run a market.</em>
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Hope that helps!
#LearnwithBrainly
People in towns didn't have to give their produce to feudal lords and were independent if they paid their taxes, and the taxes were not as high as they were for people in the land. This caused many people to abandon their feudal lords and move to cities where they would work freely.
Despite the Qin Dynasty being stricter than the Han Dynasty, they still had their similarity in their systems. They both have emperors who rule over all of the people during their time, plus they both have an idea of splitting the land into two provinces. These provinces were ran by officials of the government.
