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rodikova [14]
3 years ago
7

C+ax=dxthis one has all variables and no numbers

Mathematics
1 answer:
sergeinik [125]3 years ago
6 0
That's OK, but you have not said which variable you want to solve it for.

<u>To solve for 'x':</u>
                                           <span>c + ax = dx

Subtract c from each side:    ax = dx - c

Subtract  dx  from each side:   ax - dx = -c

Factor the left side:                 x (a - d) = -c

Divide each side by (a - d) :      x = -c / (a - d)  or  <u>x = c / (d - a)</u> .

</span><span><u>To solve for 'c': </u>
</span><span>                                   c + ax = dx

Subtract  ax  from each side and factor:   <u>c  = x (d - a) </u>

</span><u>To solve for 'd': </u>
                                      <span>c + ax = dx

Divide each side by 'x':     d = c/x + a .

<u>To solve for 'a':</u>
</span><span><span>                                           c + ax = dx</span>

Subtract 'c' from each side:    ax = dx - c

Divide each side by 'x':          <u>a = d - c/x </u>.
.</span>
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Mariana [72]
1.) D = 2pi * d * A / 360 degrees; Where:
   pi = 3.14;
   d = distance or 56,000,000 km (5.6x10^7 to standard notation)
   A = angular size in degrees or .00688 degrees (.00012 radian to degrees)

  D = 2(3.14) * 56,000,000 * .00688 / 360
      = 6.28 * 385,280 / 360
      = 2,419,558.4 / 360
 D  = 6,720.996 or 6,721

Therefore, 6,721 km. is the approximate diameter of Mars.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
g In American roulette, the wheel has the 38 numbers, 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36, marked on equally spaced slots. If a pla
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

The expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value of a random variable <em>X</em> is given by the formula:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

The American roulette wheel has the 38 numbers, {i = 00, 0, 1, 2, ..., 34, 35, and 36}, marked on equally spaced slots.

The probability that the ball stops on any of these 38 numbers is same, i.e.

P (X = i) = \frac{1}{38}.

It is provided that a a player bets $1 on a number.

If the player wins, the player keeps the dollar and receives an additional $35.

And if the player losses, the dollar is lost too.

So, the probability distribution is as follows:

<em>     X </em>: $35      -$1

P (<em>X</em>) :   \frac{1}{38}         \frac{37}{38}  

Compute the expected value of the game as follows:

E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X)

         =[\$35\times \frac{1}{38}]+[-\$1\times \frac{37}{38}]\\\\=\frac{\$35-\$37}{38}\\\\=-\frac{\$2}{38}\\\\=-\frac{1}{19}\\\\=-0.052632\\\\\approx -\$0.05

Thus, the expected value for the player to play one time is -$0.05.

7 0
3 years ago
Write the equation for the line that goes through the point (5, 12) with a slope m = 10​
Georgia [21]
Slope intercept form : y= 10x -38
Point slope form : y-12 =10 x ( x-5)
7 0
3 years ago
Restaurants often slip takeout menus under Braden's apartment door. The table shows how many menus Braden has collected from dif
solniwko [45]

Answer:

2/19

Step-by-step explanation:

Total menus collected= 24+1+9+4=38

Indian menus collected= 4

Therefore= 4/38 = 2/19

7 0
3 years ago
This equation shows a way to find a fraction equivalent to 2032
frosja888 [35]

Answer:

  • Given Below.

Explanation:

\sf \dfrac{20}{32}  = \dfrac{20}{32}  \ \div \ 1 = \dfrac{20\div 4}{32 \div 4}  = \dfrac{5}{8}

Follow the sequence. and divide the multiply the following fraction.

  • 32 ÷ ? = 8
  • ? = 4

=======

  • 20 ÷ 4 = 5
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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