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Taya2010 [7]
4 years ago
7

2. A pilot can travel 448 miles with the wind in the same amount of time as 368 miles against the wind. Find the speed of the wi

nd if the pilot’s speed in still air is 255 miles per hour.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Maslowich4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I think you subtract both and find the thing they have in common

Step-by-step explanation:

Lady_Fox [76]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

wind speed =  25  miles/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

let a = speed of the wind

speed with the wind = 255 + a , since the wind is not against him

speed against the wind = 255 - a

travel time is same for against and withe wind

therefore,

speed = distance/time

time = distance/time

448/255 + a = 368/255 - a

cross multiply

448(255 - a) = 368(255 + a)

114240 - 448a = 93840  + 368a

114240 - 93840 = 448a + 368a

20400  = 816a

divide both sides by 816

a = 20400/816

a = 25  miles/hr

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Answer:

When two lines are crossed by another line (which is called the Transversal), the angles in matching corners are called corresponding angles.

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3 years ago
IS THIS CORRECT??????????
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The correct answers are the 3rd and 4th ones.
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5 0
4 years ago
Find the range of each function for the domain {-4, -2, 0, 1.5, 4}. f(x) = 5x^2 + 4
andrew11 [14]
Substitute x with the members of the domain.
f(x) = 5x² + 4

Substitute with the domain of -4
f(x) = 5x² + 4
f(-4) = 5(-4)² + 4
f(-4) = 5(16) + 4
f(-4) = 80 + 4
f(-4) = 84

Substitute with the domain of -2
f(x) = 5x² + 4
f(-2) = 5(-2)² + 4
f(-2) = 5(4) + 4
f(-2) = 20 + 4
f(-2) = 24

Substitute with the domain of 0
f(x) = 5x² + 4
f(0) = 5(0)² + 4
f(0) = 5(0) + 4
f(0) = 0 + 4
f(0) = 4

Substitute with the domain of 1.5
f(x) = 5x² + 4
f(1.5) = 5(1.5)² + 4
f(1.5) = 5(2.25) + 4
f(1.5) = 11.25 + 4
f(1.5) = 15.25

Substitute with the domain of 4
f(x) = 5x² + 4
f(4) = 5(4)² + 4
f(4) = 5(16) + 4
f(4) = 80 + 4
f(4) = 84

The range of the function for those domain is {4, 24, 15.25, 84}
4 0
3 years ago
A women gives birth to 4 babies in her lifetime. What is the probability that she has first 3 boys and then one girl? Please hel
german

Answer:

1/16

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 50% chance of it being a boy or a girl also known as 1/2

So the first baby has a 1/2 chance, same for the second, and third, Which means that there is a 1/2, then another 1/2 and another 1/2. So you would have to multiply them all, 1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/8. For the girl, again, it is 1/2 chance of being a girl, while the other 1/2 is a boy. So 1/8*1/2 is 1/16. So the probability so the women having 3 boys then a girl, is 1/16.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
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