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disa [49]
2 years ago
11

The capital-to-labor ratio is:Question 40 options:a) a key element in decreasing real wages.b) high in rich countries.c) the rat

io of managers to workers.d) high in poor countries.
Business
2 answers:
andrezito [222]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b) high in rich countries.

Explanation:

Capital-to- labour ratio measure the degree of capitalisation of an economy.

Labour is the service that is given by workers in exchange for salaries in the production process.

Capital is the long term input that is put into the manufacturing process, usually in the form of machinery or systems that automate production.

Capital-to-labour ratio= Total capital/ Total labour

Rich countries have a high level of capitalisation of their production process, where a lot of activity is automated. So capital is high and labour input is low. This results in a high capital-to-labour ratio.

On the other hand poor countries are more labour inensive, so their capital-to-labour ratio is low.

Tasya [4]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": high in rich countries.

Explanation:

The capital-to-labor (K/L) ratio studies the relationship between the capital and labor used in the process of producing a good or rendering a service. When capital is higher, the capital-to-labor ratio is high as well. This scenario is common in <em>developed countries</em> with important investment in technology and equipment aiming to increment productivity.

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If the spot rate of the Israeli shekel is 5.76 shekels per dollar and the 180-day forward rate is 5.51 shekels per dollar, then
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

Premium = $5.76 -$5.51 = 0.25

Percentage of premium = 0.25/5.76 x 100

                                        = 4.34% premium

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

This is an indirect quote in which dollar is fixed and shekels is variable. In order to obtain the 180-day forward rate, premium of $0.25 has been deducted. In indirect quote, premium is deducted from the spot rate in order to determine the forward rate ie $5.76 - $0.25 = $5.51. The percentage of premium is calculated as premium divided by spot rate multiplied by 100.

8 0
2 years ago
Internal failure costs are costs incurred​ ________. A. after the company delivers poorminusquality goods or services to custome
Grace [21]

Answer:

c. when the company corrects poorminusquality goods or services before delivery to customers.

Explanation:

Internal failure costs are costs incurred when the company corrects <u>poorminusquality goods or services before delivery to customers.</u>

5 0
2 years ago
Trends established by your competition can provide you with an advantage <br> A. True<br> B. False
Alexus [3.1K]

False, cuz cuz cuz cuz cuz


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
During the taking of its physical inventory on December 31, Almond Supplies Company incorrectly counted its inventory as $545,00
IceJOKER [234]

Answer and Explanation:

The effect of undervaluation of Inventory is shown below:-

Inventory Understated = Inventory counted + Correct value of inventory

= $545,000 - $554,000

= $9,000

Now, the effect of undervaluation of Inventory is

Cost of goods overstated by $9,000

Net income understated by $9,000

Retained earning understated by $9,000

Assets (Current assets - Inventory) understated by $9,000

5 0
3 years ago
. Alternative A has a first cost of $20,000, an operating cost of $9,000 per year, and a $5,000 salvage value after 5 years. Alt
JulsSmile [24]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

NPW of X is

= -$20,000 - $9,000 × (P/A,12%,5) + $5,000 × (P/F,12%,5)

= -$20,000 - $9,000 × 3.604776 + $5,000 × 0.567427

= -$49,605.85

And,  

NPW of Y is

= -$35,000 - $4,000 × (P/A,12%,5) + $7,000 × (P/F,12%,5)

= -$35,000 - $4,000 × 3.604776 + $7,000 × 0.567427

= -$45,447.11

Based on the above calculations as we can see that net present cost of Y is lower than the net present cost of X so Y should be selected  

7 0
3 years ago
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