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Elden [556K]
3 years ago
6

Two studies were done on the same set of data, where study I was a one-sided test and study II was a two-sided test. The p-value

of the test corresponding to study I was found to be 0.030. What is the p-value for study II?
Mathematics
1 answer:
mixer [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0.060

Step-by-step explanation:

In a two tailed test the probability of occurrence is the total area under the critical range of values on both the sides of the curve (negative side and positive side)

Thus, the probability values for a two tailed test as compared to a one tailed test is given by the under given relation -

p-value = P(Z< -\frac{\alpha }{2} )+P(Z >\frac{\alpha}{2})\

Here P\frac{\alpha}{2} = 0.030

Substituting the given value in above equation, we get -

probability values for a two tailed test

=0.030 + 0.030\\= 0.060

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Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

a. The probability is 0.735

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Step-by-step explanation:

If we assume a binomial process, the probability that x customer are willing to switch companies is:

P(x)=nCx*p^{x}*(1-p)^{n-x}

nCx is calculated as:

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Then, P(x) is:

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The probability that between 2 and 5 (inclusive) customers are willing to switch companies is:

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Where P(2), P(3), P(4) and P(5) are equal to:

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P(3)=20C3*0.2^{3}*(1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054

P(4)=20C4*0.2^{4}*(1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182

P(5)=20C5*0.2^{5}*(1-0.2)^{20-5}=0.1745

So, P(2≤x≤5) is:

P(2≤x≤5) = 0.1369 + 0.2054 + 0.2182 + 0.1745 = 0.735

At the same way, the probability that less than 5 customers are willing to switch is:

P(x<5)=P(0)+P(1)+P(2)+P(3)+P(4)

P(x<5)=0.6296

Finally, the probability that more than 16 customers are willing to switch is:

P(x>16)=P(17)+P(18)+P(19)+P(20)

P(x>16)=0

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