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Licemer1 [7]
3 years ago
5

Is -2/5 irrational or rational and why???

Mathematics
1 answer:
Levart [38]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Rational

Step-by-step explanation:

A rational number is a number expressed as a fraction. So the number could be a decimal or percent.

Hope This Helps :)

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A coin is to be tossed as many times as necessary to turn up one head. Thus the elements c of the sample space C are H, TH, TTH,
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As stated in the question, the probability to toss a coin and turn up heads in the first try is \frac{1}{2}, in the second is \frac{1}{4}, in the third is \frac{1}{8} and so on. Then, P(C) is given by the next sum:

P(C)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(\frac{1}{2} )^{n}=1

This is a geometric series with factor \frac{1}{2}. Then is convergent to \frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{2}}-1=1.. With this we have proved that P(C)=1.

Now, observe that

P(H)=\frac{1}{2}, P(TH)=\frac{1}{4},P(TTH)=\frac{1}{8},P(TTTH)=\frac{1}{16},P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{32},P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{64}.

Then

P(C1)=P(H)+P(TH)+P(TTH)+P(TTTH)+P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{32} =\frac{31}{32}

P(C2)=P(TTTTH)+P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{64} =\frac{3}{64}

P(C1\cap C2)=P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{32}

and

P(C1\cup C2)=P(H)+P(TH)+P(TTH)+P(TTTH)+P(TTTTH)+P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{32} +\frac{1}{64}=\frac{63}{64}

5 0
3 years ago
6) BRAINLIEST AND 10+ POINTS!! PLS HELP ASAP :)
dem82 [27]

$10,000 at 7% continuous compounding for 8 years

10000 e^{0.07 (8)} = 17506.7

Answer: A

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The values in the table represent a linear function. What is the common difference of the associated arithmetic sequence
Helga [31]
Answer: 17

21-4=17


4+17=21
21+17=38 and so on..
7 0
3 years ago
Pls help this question i want its aregent
meriva

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 3

multiply 4 by -20

1/4×-20

= -20/-20

= 1 answer

4 0
2 years ago
Assume that different groups of couples use the XSORT method of gender selection and each couple gives birth to one baby. The XS
olganol [36]

Answer:

Mean and Standard deviation for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births are 18 and 3 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that he X SORT method is designed to increase the likelihood that a baby will be a girl, but assume that the method has no effect, so the probability of a girl is 0.5.

Now consider a group consisting of 36 couples.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

P(X=r)=\binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ;x=0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 36 couples

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is probability

                   of a girl, i.e.; p = 0.5

<em><u>Let X = Numbers of girls in groups of 36 births </u></em>

So, X ~ Binom(n = 36, p = 0.5)

Now, mean for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births is given by;

         <u>Mean</u>, E(X) = n \times p = 36 \times 0.5 = 18

Also, standard deviation for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births is given by;

        <u>Standard deviation</u>, S.D.(X) =  \sqrt{n\times p\times (1-p)}

                                                      =  \sqrt{36\times 0.5\times (1-0.5)}

                                                      =  3

3 0
3 years ago
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