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Rasek [7]
4 years ago
15

How is domain of the function f(x)=tanx restricted so that its inverse function exists?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Anna71 [15]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Domain: [0,pi]

Range of f-inverse: (-pi/2, pi/2)

Tasya [4]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(-π/2, π/2).

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of tan π/2  and tan (-π/2) s undefined so the domain  is restricted to

(-π/2, π/2).

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2 years ago
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olga55 [171]
\bf \textit{volume of a cylinder}\\\\
V=\pi r^2 h\qquad 
\begin{cases}
r=radius\\
h=height\\
-----\\
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h=x
\end{cases}\implies 4\pi x^3=\pi \cdot r^2\cdot x
\\\\\\
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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Read 2 more answers
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