Answer:
$710.84 million
Explanation:
Net income = $35 million
Depreciation = $20 million
Capital expenditures = $7 million
Tax rate = 21%
D/E ratio = 0.4
Growth rate = 6%
Equity beta = 1.25
So, firm's asset beta = Equity beta/(1 + D/E*(1-T))
= 1.25/(1 + 0.4*(1-0.21))
= 0.94985
So, Free Cash Flow to the Firm= NI + Depreciation - Capital expenditures
= 35 + 20 - 7
= $48 million
Risk free rate Rf = 5%
Market risk premium = 7.5%
So, firm cost of capital using CAPM is Rf + Beta*(MRP)
Kc = 5 + 0.94985*7.5
Kc = 12.1239
So, Firms value using constant dividend growth model:
FV = FCF*(1+g)/(Kc-g)
FV = 48*1.06 / 0.121239-0.06
FV = 50.88 / 0.061239
FV = 830.8430901876255
FV = $830.84 million
Debt = $120 million
Market Value of equity = FV - Debt
Market Value of equity = $830.84 million - $120 million
Market Value of equity = $710.84 million
Answer:
The amount of cash paid to suppliers of merchandise during the reporting period is $31
Explanation:
Inventory beginning balance is $90, ending balance is $93
Account payables beginning balance is $14, ending balance is $16
Cost of goods sold is $30
Using T accounts: Beginning Inventory + Purchases - Ending Inventory = Cost of Goods Sold.
Therefore Purchases = Cost of Sales - Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory
Purchases = 30-90+93 = 33
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In the Accounts Payable Account
Opening balance and Credit purchases are on the credit side, while payment to suppliers and closing balance are on the debit side
Therefore: Opening balance + Purchases during the period = Payments during the period + closing balance.
Hence: 14+33= payments during the period + 16
Payments during the period = 14+33 - 16 = $31
Answer:
$807,992
Explanation:
issue $902,000 with a 6% semiannual coupon and 10 year maturity. coupon payment = $27,060
if the annual market interest rate = 7.5%, the bonds should be sold at a discount:
issue price = present value of face value + present value of interest payments
- present value of face value = $902,000 / (1 + 3.75%)²⁰ = $431,961
- present value of annuity = $27,060 x {1 - [1 / (1 + 3.75%)²⁰]} / 3.75% = $376,031
issue price = $431,961 + $376,031 = $807,992
the journal entry should be:
Dr Cash 807,992
Dr Discount on bonds payable 94,008
Cr Bonds payable 902,000
Answer:
$51,500
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of goods sold for the year is shown below:
As we know that
Cost of Goods Sold = Beginning balance of Finished Goods Inventory + Cost of Goods Manufactured – Ending balance of Finished Goods Inventory
= $2,000 + $55,000 - $5,500
= $51,500
We simply applied the cost of goods sold formula by taking the three items into the computation part
Answer:
1.597
Explanation:
The computation of the factor beta using the one-factor arbitrage pricing model is shown below:
As we know that
= (Expected rate of return - risk-free rate of return) ÷ (market rate of return-risk-free rate of return)
= (17.61% - 3.68%) ÷ (12.4% - 3.68%)
= 1.597
We simply applied the above formula to determine the factor beta and the same is to be considered