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zloy xaker [14]
3 years ago
9

Over the next 100 years, real GDP per capita in Groland is expected to grow at an average annual rate of 2.0%. In Sloland, howev

er, growth is expected to be somewhat slower, at an average annual growth rate of 1.5%. If both countries have a real GDP per capita today of $20,000, how will their real GDP per capita differ in 100 years? Round all answers to two places after the decimal point. Groland's real per capita GDP will be $ in 100 years. Sloland's real per capita GDP will be $ in 100 years. In 100 years, Sloland's real per capita GDP will be % of Groland's.
Business
1 answer:
Tomtit [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Groland's real per capita GDP will be $40,000.00  in 100 years.

Sloland's real per capita GDP will be $30,000.00 in 100 years

In 100 years, Sloland's real per capita GDP will be 75.00% of Groland's

Explanation:

Groland GDP per capita in 10 years at an average annual rate of 2.0% = 20% × 100 × $20,000 = $40,000

Sloland GDP per capita in 100 years at an average annual rate of 1.5% = 1.5% × 100 × $20,000 = $30,000

Difference in GDP per capita of Groland and Sloland = $40,000 ­ $30,000 = $10,000

Since we now know the real per capita GDP of Groland and Sloland, which are $40,000 and $30,000 respectively, Sloland’s real per capita GDP % of Groland’s per capita GDP = 30,000/40,000 × 100 = 75%

Sloland’s real per capita GDP is 75% of Groland’s.

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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": objective value.

Explanation:

Subjective values are those provided by individuals based on their <em>beliefs, perceptions, ideas, feelings, </em>and <em>reflections</em>. Subjective values are biased. Objective values, on the other hand, are based on <em>facts, statistics, evidence, </em>and <em>observations</em>. Objective values are unbiased.

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3 years ago
Calculate the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank with: a. Cash of $20 million, 0% b. Gen. Obligation municipal security of $100
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This is what i found  Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
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= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier 2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15 million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925 million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37 million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925 million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from 8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael & Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
 
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In accounting for a contingent liability, if the likelihood of the obligation is probable but the amount cannot be estimated, a
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