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3 years ago

24 ten thousands equals

1 answer:

6 0

0.0024 because each 0 after the point is going up by 10th place for example 10,100,1000,10000 so this answer would be correct

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System w/Elimination -2x-9y=-25 -4x-9y=-25

Lerok [7]

x=0 and y= $\frac{25}{9}$

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to solve the system by elimination and find values of x and y

$-2x-9y=-25\,\,\,(1)\\-4x-9y=-25\,\,\,(2)$

Subtract eq(1) and eq(2)

$-2x-9y=-25\,\,\,(1)\\-4x-9y=-25\,\,\,(2)\\+\,\,\,+\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,+\\---------\\2x=0\\x=0$

Now Multiply equation (1) by 2 and subtract with eq(2)

$-4x-18y=-50\\-4x-9y=-25\\+\,\,\,\,\,\,+\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,+\\--------\\-9y=-25\\y=\frac{-25}{-9}\\y=\frac{25}{9}$

So, x=0 and y= $\frac{25}{9}$

Keywords: system by elimination

Learn more about system by elimination at:

#learnwithBrainly

5 0

3 years ago

Olá pessoal como estão

Vilka [71]

The comment below or above mine is gonna mess your device up, don’t click/look it up

3 0

3 years ago

Solve the equation for the variable v. D=2zv

Arlecino [84]

Unless this is some perplexed kind of math, how can you solve the variables when there is only one number to go from?
Is there a 'not enough information' answer choice

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the equation of the ellipse with foci at (5, 0), (-5, 0) and vertices (9, 0), (-9, 0)?

forsale [732]

Answer: $\dfrac{x^2}{81}+\dfrac{y^2}{56}=1$

Step-by-step explanation:

General equation of ellipse : $\dfrac{x^2}{a^2}+\dfrac{y^2}{b^2}$

Given: Vertices of ellipse : (± 9,0)

Since the vertices are of the form (± a, 0).

i.e. a=9

Thus, the major axis is along x-axis.

Also, foci of the ellipse = (±5,0)

Since, foci is of the form (± c,0), i.e. c=5

Since

$c^2=a^2-b^2\\\\\Rightarrow\ 5^2= 9^2-b^2\\\\\Rightarrow\ b^2=81-25\\\\\Rightarrow\ b^2=56$

Equation of ellipse :

$\dfrac{x^2}{9^2}+\dfrac{y^2}{56}=1\\\\\Rightarrow\ \dfrac{x^2}{81}+\dfrac{y^2}{56}=1$

Hence, the required equation : $\dfrac{x^2}{81}+\dfrac{y^2}{56}=1$

8 0

4 years ago

Dard

Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

34 in 40

Step-by-step explanation:

6 in 40 is the probability of winning, so

34 in 40 is the probability of not winning.

simply do 40 - 6.

This answer can also be written as

$\frac{34}{40}$

or 85%

6 0

3 years ago