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3241004551 [841]
3 years ago
13

I will do anything if you answer!!! There's a photo!!! PLEASE!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Makovka662 [10]3 years ago
8 0
A, it's always true
remember commutative property
a+b=b+a
a and b can be negativ numbers

so equatinos
-5.2+7.71=2.51
7.71-5.2=2.51

-8.65+3.94=-4.62
3.94-8.65=-4.62


B.
-5.2-7.71=-12.91
7.71-(-5.2)=12.91

-8.65-3.94=-12.59
3.94-(-8.65)=12.59

always false

C. when you change the order, you are subtracting a different number from a different number than before

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5. A magic kit regularly priced at $15.30 is 70% off the regular price. What is the DISCOUNT?
densk [106]

Answer:

B. $10.71

Step-by-step explanation:

15.30 x 0.7 = 10.71

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help. What is the equation of the line in slope-intercept form?​
kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

Ray, you need the slope-intercept formula  y=mx+b

Step-by-step explanation:

Next you'll need 2 points,  any points are fine.  Just find two easy ones along the line.  I'll just pick  Point 1  as P1 = ( 0,4)  and point 2 as P2 = (4,0) because they are easy to work with.

next use

point P1 (0,4)  in the form (x1,y1)

point P2(4,0)  in the form (x2,y2)

slope = m

m = (y2-y1) / (x2-x1)

m = (0-4) / (4-0)

m = -4 / 4

m = -1

now use the point slope with one of the points,  to find the slope-intercept form.

y - y1 = m(x -x1)

y - 4 =  -1(x-0)

y -4 = -x

y = -x + 4

note:

y = mx +b

y = (-1)x + b    is the form.   see?

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE ANSWER: 3 1/2 + (-7) x (2 2/3 + 1 1/2) = ?
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

-\frac{77}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

So we have the equation: 3\frac{1}{2} + (-7) * (2\frac{2}{3} + 1\frac{1}{2}). and I'm assuming you meant to do mixed fractions and not actually multiplying. 2 * 2/3. So the first thing to do is follow PEMDAS which essentially says Parenthesis first, Exponents next, Multiplication or Division, and then Addition or Subtract. So let's start by evaluating the 2 2/3 and 1 1/2. The first step is to combine 2 into the 2/3 and the 1 into 1/2. This is done by multiplying the 2 by the denominator of 3, and adding it to the numerator so: 2\frac{2}{3} = > \frac{(2*3)+2}{3} = > \frac{8}{3}. And you do this for the 1/2 as well: 1\frac{1}{2} = > \frac{(2*1)+1}{2}= > \frac{3}{2}.

Now when adding fractions, you can only add them when they have the same denominator, so we have the get 3/2 and 8/3 to have the same denominator. You can list the multiplies of 2 and 3 to try to find a LCM, but in this case, I'll just multiply 2 and 3, since they're really small numbers, also because 6 is the LCM. \frac{8}{3} * \frac{2}{2} = \frac{16}{6}. And now do this to the 3/2 you get: \frac{3}{2} * \frac{3}{3} = \frac{9}{6}. Now the inside of the parenthesis is: \frac{9}{6} + \frac{16}{6} = \frac{25}{6}. So now we have the equation: 3\frac{1}{2} -7 * \frac{25}{6} . Also notice how I got ride of the plus sign and made it negative? Think of it as having a 1 in front and simply distributing that to the -7, 1*(-7) becomes -7.

Now to multiply the fraction by a whole number you simply multiply the denominator and numerator, and you can think of the denominator of a whole number as a 1. So this gives you: \frac{-7}{1} * \frac{25}{6} = \frac{-7 * 25}{1 * 6} = -\frac{175}{6}. Now we have the equation: 3\frac{1}{2} - \frac{175}{6}. And to subtract these two numbers I'll make the 3 1/2 a fraction by multiplying the 3 by the denominator and adding it to the 1 which should become 7/2. And after that multiply both sides by 3/3 to get 21/6 so they have the same denominator. This gives you the equation: \frac{21}{6} - \frac{175}{6} = \frac{21-175}{6} = -\frac{154}{6}. Which can simplify by dividing both sides by 2 to get: -\frac{77}{3}

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The annual tuition and parent rating of 12 private schools is shown on the scatterplot. The schools are rated on a scale of 0 to
cestrela7 [59]

Answer:

DUDEEE WHO GAVE YOU THIS QUESTION "LOL"

4 0
2 years ago
A poker hand is a set of 5 cards randomly chosen from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of a (a) royal flush (ten, jack,
zysi [14]

Answer:

a) 0.000001539

b) 0.00001385

c) 0.0002401

d) 0.001441

e) 0.001966

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 52 deck of cards, and the hand of the poker is 5 set, then the total number of hands achievable would be

T = 52! / 5!(52 - 5)!

T = 52! / 5! 47 !

T = 2598560 possibilities.

a) There are 4 ways of getting a royal flush. So the probability of getting a royal flush is

4 / 2598560 =

0.000001539

b) There are 9 hands from the 5 card hands, and also, there are 4 possible suits. So then, the probability is

9 * 4 / 2598560 =

36 / 2598560 =

0.00001385

c) There are 13 possible ways to get a four of a kind, since there are 5 cards with the poker, the remaining would be taken from the 48 remaining cards, thus

13 * 48 / 2598560 =

624 / 2598560 =

0.0002401

d) 3 of a kind in conjunction with a pair is needed to form a full house. This 3 of a kind can be gotten from any 4 suits. Then again, the pair has two cards with the same face value. So,

4! / 2! (4 - 2)! =

4! / 2! 2! = 6

That means, there are 6 possible ways to get our needed suits. Then, the probability of getting a full house is

13 * 4 * 12 * 6 / 2598560 =

3744 / 2598560 =

0.001441

e) To get a flush, all the 5 cards in the hand needs to have the same suit. Now, there are 13 different types of cards with only 5 cards being in the hand, thus

13! / 5! (13 - 5)! =

13! / 5! 8! = 1287

Now, recall that the question specifically asked us not to include any straight. There are 10 straights that can be gotten, and thus, we subtract it.

1287 - 10 = 1277

Since there are 4 suits, the probability of getting a flush is

1277 * 4 / 2598560 =

5108 / 2598560 = 0.001966

5 0
4 years ago
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