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HACTEHA [7]
3 years ago
13

During the current period, Department A finished and transferred 50,000 units to Department B. Of the 50,000 units, 20,000 were

one-fifth complete at the beginning of the period and 30,000 were started and completed during the period. Also during the period, 10,000 units were started but brought only to a stage of being three-fifths completed. Beginning goods in process inventory overhead costs were $6,000. If the weighted-average method is used and $14,000 of overhead was charged to Department A during the period, how much overhead should be allocated to the ending goods in process inventory?
Business
1 answer:
Mumz [18]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Overhead cost of ending WIP = $2,160

Explanation:

Beginning Work in Process (WIP) cost: $6,000

Cost charged during the period: $14,000

Total Cost of the Units: $6,000 + $14,000 = $20,000

Equivalent Units of Production (EUP): Started and Completed + Ending WIP Units

EUP: 50,000 + 10,000 x 3/5 = 56,000

Cost per Equivalent Unit: Total Cost of Units / Equivalent Units of Production

Cost per EUP: $20,000 / 56,000 = $0,36

Overhead cost of ending WIP = (10,000 x 3/5) * $036 = $2,160

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Idk bro I'm just answering this for points
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3 years ago
Miltmar Corporation will pay a year-end dividend of $4, and dividends thereafter are expected to grow at the constant rate of 4%
____ [38]

Answer:

A. Market Capitalization rate = 13%

B. Intrinsic Value = $46.22

Explanation:

<em>A. Market Capitalization rate:</em>

CAPM should be used to calculate market capitalization from the given data. Following is the formula for CAPM

CAPM=r+(MxB)

r = risk free rate

M = market portfolio return

B = beta

Solution:

CAPM=0.04+(0.75x0.12)

CAPM = 13%

<em>B. Intrinsic Value of stock</em>

Gordon Growth Model (GGM) should be used to calculate intrinsic value of stock based on the given data.

Following is the formula for GGM

GGM=Dx(1+g)/(r-g)

D = Current Dividend

g = Dividend Growth rate

r = market capitalization rate (CAPM calculated in part A)

Solution:

DDM=4x(1+0.04)/(0.13-.04)

DDM = $46.22

<em>Note: All values are rounded off to two decimal points.</em>

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4 years ago
The end goal of the Executive order is to provide what to the patients
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3 years ago
Maloney's, Inc. has found that its cost of common equity capital is 17 percent and its cost of debt capital is 6 percent. The fi
Gwar [14]

Answer:

11.64%

Explanation:

The formula to compute WACC is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate)  + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

where,  

Weighted of debt = Debt ÷ total firm

The total firm includes debt, preferred stock, and the equity which equals to

= $3,000,000 + $2,000,000 = $5,000,000

So, Weighted of debt = ($2,000,000 ÷ $5,000,000) = 0.40

And, the weighted of common stock = (Common stock ÷ total firm)

                                                              = $3,000,000 ÷ $5,000,0000

                                                              = 0.60              

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= (0.40 × 6%) × ( 1 - 40%) +  (0.60 × 17%)

= 1.44% + 10.2%

= 11.64%

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