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Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
3 years ago
15

The volume of the triangular block is 4 cubic inches.

Mathematics
2 answers:
ehidna [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2.8 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

Anit [1.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2.8 in

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve using substitution <br> y= 7x + 6 <br> 4x - 3y =16
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

{y,x} = {-8,-2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps.

4 0
2 years ago
What is the area of this rectangle 6.03cm 3.4cm. cm2
Arlecino [84]
You'll have to be more specific, like what is each side, as in height, width or length. Sorry!
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-24x -15 = -27. Step by step explanation on how to solve this problem.
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

x = \frac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

- 24x - 15 = - 27 ( add 15 to both sides )

- 24x = - 12 ( divide both sides by - 24 )

x = \frac{-12}{-24} = \frac{1}{2}

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pi/6 is the reference angle for:<br><br> 3pi/6<br><br> 5pi/6<br><br> 13pi/6<br><br> 8pi/6
Elanso [62]

Answer:

\frac{5\pi}{6}, \frac{13\pi}{6}

Step by step

Remember, a reference angle is a positive acute angle that represents an angle θ of any measurement.

a)

\frac{3\pi}{6}=90^\circ, then its reference angle is \frac{\pi}{2}

b)

\frac{5\pi}{6}=150^ \circ is in the second cuadrant, then its reference angle is 180^ \circ -150^{\circ}=30^{\circ}=\frac{\pi}{6}

c)

\frac{13\pi}{6}=390^\circ=360^\circ+30^\circ, then it is in the first cuadrant and the reference angle is 30^\circ =\frac{\pi}{6}.

d)

\frac{8\pi}{6}=240^\circ and it is in the third cuadrant, then its reference angle is 240^\circ -180^\circ=60^\circ=\frac{\pi}{3}

5 0
3 years ago
For one toss of a certain coin, the probability that the outcome is heads is 0.6. If this coin is tossed 5 times, which of the f
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

The probability is 0.33696

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the outcome will be heads x times is calculated using the following equation:

P(x) = nCx*p^{x} *(1-p)^{n-x}

nCx is calculated as:

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

This apply for variables that follows a binomial distribution. In which we have n independent and identical events with two possibles results: success and fail with a probability p and 1-p respectively.

So, In this case, n is equal to 5, and p is equal to 0.6 because we are going to call success the event in which the outcome of the coin is head.

Then, the probability that the outcome will be heads at least 4 times is calculated as:

P = P(4) + P(5)

Where P(4) is:

P(4) = 5C4*0.6^{4} *(1-0.6)^{5-4}

P(4)=0.2592

And P(5) is:

P(5) = 5C5*0.6^{5} *(1-0.6)^{5-5}

P(4)=0.07776

Finally, the probability is:

P = 0.2592 + 0.07776

P = 0.33696

5 0
3 years ago
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