Answer:
The solution and the calculation is shown on the first , second , third and fourth uploaded image
Explanation:
Answer and Explanation:
a. The estimation of the contribution margin for each segment is shown below:
(in millions)
<u>Particulars Investor Advisor Services Services </u>
Income from
operations $1,681 $1,660
Add:
Depreciation $171 $154
Contribution
Margin $1,852 $1,814
2. Now the estimation of decline in operating income is
(in millions)
<u>Particulars Combined services Institutional Services </u>
Revenues $9,368 $4,771
Less:
Variable cost $5,702 $2,919
($2,919 + $2,783)
Contribution
margin $3,666 $1,852
Less:
Fixed cost -$325 -$171
Net income $3,341 $1,681
So according to the above calculations, the net operating income is declined by
= $3,341 - $1,681
= $1,660 million
The variable cost is come from
= Service revenues - income from operations - depreciation expense
Answer:
Put options give the holder the right to sell the underlying stock to the seller of the put option.
Put options are advantageous when the price in the market falls below the strike price of the option because the buyer will be able to sell at above market value and make a profit.
The asking price for a strike price of $9.00 is listed to be $0.33 and this is the premium paid by the buyer of the Put Option.
<h2>
1. Return if stock sells for $8.00</h2>
= Amount received/ Amount spent
= (No. of shares * ((Strike price - Market price) - Premium paid) ) / (No. of share * premium)
= (2,300 shares * (($9.00 - 8.00) - 0.33))/ ( 2,300 * 0.33)
= 2.03
= 203 %
<h2>
2. Return if stock sells for $10.00. </h2>
As this is an option, the investor can decide not to sell to the seller. The market price is higher than the strike price so they will not sell to the seller of the option and the return will be;
= (No. of shares * - Premium paid) ) / (No. of share * premium)
= (2,300 shares * - 0.33)/ ( 2,300 * 0.33)
= -1
= -100 %
When there prices rise because of an increase in aggregate spending not fully matched by an increase in aggregate output, then, an economy is experiencing a Demand-pull inflation.
The Demand-pull inflation is the type of inflation experienced as a result of an imbalance in aggregate supply and demand, thus, the prices go up because of aggregate demand which outweighs the aggregate supply.
Therefore, the Option C is correct because when there prices rise because of an increase in aggregate spending not fully matched by an increase in aggregate output, then, an economy is experiencing a Demand-pull inflation.
Learn more about this here
<em>brainly.com/question/18072639</em>
Output and input levels always tend to an equilibrium point it the long run, meaning they are inelastic in the long run.
Elasticity refers to how much supply and/or demand changes with changes in pricing. The more elastic, the more change there is.
In the short-term, output and and supply can change dramatically, but in the long run things tend back to the middle (equilibrium).
