All categories

3 years ago

HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

Flauer [41]3 years ago

6 0

The answer is D. Bc the DEF Triangle is basically the reflection

Naya [18.7K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

D. reflection across a vertical line

Step-by-step explanation:

Reflection is basically a mirror image. Since you can see that the first triangle is flipped over to get the second one, this is a reflection.

It is not a vertical translation; this means that the triangle shifted up or down.

It is not a horizontal translation, this means that the triangle shifted left or right.

It is not a rotation about point A either, this would have meant that the triangle spun around.

You might be interested in

PROBABILITY GUYYYS

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

Since there are nine coins in total, and the chances of them both being dimes are low, it should be like 3/11

Step-by-step explanation:

You were correct on instinct lol :>

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Convert 38 millimeters into inches

prohojiy [21]

Answer:
1.49606 inches

Explain;
Conversion rate:
1 millimetre = 0.0394 inch

(a brainliest would be appreciated)

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A 1.5-mm layer of paint is applied to one side of the following surface. Find the approximate volume of paint needed. Assume tha

Mariulka [41]

Answer:

V = 63π / 200 m^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

- The function y = f(x) is revolved around the x-axis over the interval [1,6] to form a spherical surface:

y = √(42*x - x^2)

- The surface is coated with paint with uniform layer thickness t = 1.5 mm

Find:

The volume of paint needed

Solution:

- Let f be a non-negative function with a continuous first derivative on the interval [1,6]. The Area of surface generated when y = f(x) is revolved around x-axis over the interval [1,6] is:

$S = 2*\pi \int\limits^a_b { [f(x)*\sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} }] \, dx$

- The derivative of the function f'(x) is as follows:

$f'(x) = \frac{21-x}{\sqrt{42x-x^2} }$

- The square of derivative of f(x) is:

$f'(x)^2 = \frac{(21-x)^2}{42x-x^2 }$

- Now use the surface area formula:

$S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2} *\sqrt{1 + \frac{(21-x)^2}{42x-x^2 } }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2+(21-x)^2} }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2+441-42x+x^2} }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{441} }] \, dx\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { 21} \, dx\\\\S = 42*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { dx} \,\\\\S = 42*\pi [ 6 - 1 ]\\\\S = 42*5*\pi \\\\S = 210\pi$

- The Volume of the pain coating is:

V = S*t

V = 210*π*3/2000

V = 63π / 200 m^3

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE HELP I WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST AND PLEASE SHOW YOUR WORK.

Feliz [49]

Answer:

Part A: 7.58974359 gallons (I don't know if you needed to round so I kept the full number).

Part B: 8.871794872 gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A's Steps:

First Step: 350 - 54 = 296

Second Step: 296 ÷ 39 = 7.58974359 (Round if you need to)

Part B's Steps:

First Step: 296 + 50 = 346

Second Step: 346 ÷ 50 = 8.871794872

5 0

3 years ago

Someone help me please

slega [8]

First off what ummmmmm section of mathmatics are you doing?

4 0

3 years ago