Answer:
Insolvent banks;Solvent banks.
Explanation:
A bank run can be defined as a situation where bank clients or depositors make withdrawals of their money simultaneously from banks as a result of being scared or afraid the depository institution will run out of cash (bankruptcy) and become insolvent.
The problem with bank runs is not that insolvent banks will fail; they are, after all, bankrupt and need to be shut down. The problem is that bank runs can cause solvent banks to fail and spread to the rest of the financial system.
In order to counter the problem with bank runs, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) was established on the 16th of June, 1933.
Furthermore, to avoid bank runs or other financial institutions from being insolvent, the Federal Reserve (Fed) and Central banks (lender of last resort) are readily accessible and available to give monetary funds to these institutions when they're running out of money and as well as regulate their activities.
Answer:
Part 1). Yes, Alex be better off in Paris if the relative prices between American and French meals (p_a/p_f) are lower in Paris than Austin because his capability to buying goods growths so his cash is fundamentally value more locally.
Part 2) No, Alex be better off in Paris if the relative prices between American and French meals (p_a/p_f) are higher in Paris than Austin because even though he can buying the same components, they will cost extra, and he will consume less goods than living in Austin
Answer:
A promotional plan of a company refers to the promotional mix. This mix contains decisions regarding the company which would put them on the path of growth and lead them towards success.
This consists of decisions regarding the manufacturing procedures, marketing decisions, market niche decisions, customer care services if required, promotional decisions, planing and strategic organizational decisions and etc.
Answer:
Kd = 7%
Ke = D1 + g
Po(1 - FC)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$40(1 - 0.15)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$34
Ke = 0.1488 = 14.88%
WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T)
WACC = 14.88(60/100) + 7(40/100)(1 - 0.40)
WACC = 8.928 + 1.68
WACC = 10.6%
Explanation:
In this case before-tax cost of debt is given. Cost of equity is expected dividend divided by current market price after flotation cost plus growth rate. WACC is calculated as cost of equity multiplied by the proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure.